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West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. begin CPR until an AED is available. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath D. remove your hands from the chest - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. allow full chest recoil Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. gastric distention. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. occurs every 24 months. B. is delivered by computer. C. involves hands-on practice. D. is self-paced and brief. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. involves hands-on practice. CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. signs of putrefaction are present. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. a valid living will is unavailable. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. a valid living will is unavailable. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. supine. B. prone. C. horizontal. D. on a firm surface. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. prone. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. b. c. in patients who are intubated. d. when the airway is completely obstructed. e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions
B. 5:
C. 30:
D. 3:2 - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. 30:
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. with one or two hands. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. 80 to 100 times per minute. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. with one or two hands. While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed D. deteriorate over time - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. deteriorate over time Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. place the patient supine. B. encourage the patient to cough. C. administer back blows. D. perform abdominal thrusts. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. encourage the patient to cough. Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. take standard precautions. An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. nature of illness Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease.
C. address the patient's symptoms D. correct the patient's underlying problem - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. address the patient's symptoms The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. after the primary assessment has been completed. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion C. Medical history D. Primary assessment - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. Medical history When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Substance abuse - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. Substance abuse Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough B. MRSA C. H1N D. Avian flu - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. MRSA Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. 68-year- old woman with type 2 diabetes You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient
Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. immune system. Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. air passing through fluid His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. pertussis. B. epiglottitis. C. croup. D. bronchiolitis. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. bronchiolitis. In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Trachea D. Capillaries - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. Alveoli
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. abnormal breath sounds. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema D. Narcotic overdose - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. Severe anxiety Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis D. Celiac sprue - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. Cystic fibrosis Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Lung sounds C. Blood glucose levels
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. alternate drive B. CO2 drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. hypoxic drive A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. Acute myocardial infarction A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. immediately resume CPR. Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. right atrium. C. right ventricle. D. left atrium. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. right atrium. Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:
The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. anywhere on the arms. B. on either side of the chest. C. on the thighs or ankles. D. on the lower abdomen. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. on the thighs or ankles. Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Generalized weakness B. A rapid heart rate C. Syncope or dizziness D. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. A rapid heart rate Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Labored breathing B. Dependent edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Flat jugular veins - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. Dependent edema You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm. D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one:
A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. C. apply pressure to the brachial artery. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. High-flow oxygen administration B. Rapid transport to a trauma center C. Full immobilization of her spine D. Intravenous fluid administration - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. Rapid transport to a trauma center As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Check for a pulse. B. Control the bleeding. C. Administer oxygen. D. Open the airway. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. Control the bleeding. Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. septic shock C. neurogenic shock D. psychogenic shock - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. anaphylactic shock Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. whole blood.
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion. B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. D. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. En route to the hospital B. During the primary assessment C. Prior to transport D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS A. En route to the hospital When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. B. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Spinal cord injury B. Simple pneumothorax C. Liver laceration D. Cardiac tamponade - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. Cardiac tamponade Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. an increased heart rate B. peripheral vasoconstriction C. peripheral vasodilation D. hypothermia - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. peripheral vasoconstriction Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. Select one: A. neurogenic shock B. cardiogenic shock C. hypovolemic shock D. septic shock - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. cardiogenic shock Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. compensated shock C. decompensated shock D. late shock - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS B. compensated shock A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did. C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. - THE CORRECT ASNWER IS D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.
