Download West Coast 2025 EMT Block 4 Full Curriculum Breakdown with Practice Test Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
West Coast 2025 EMT Block 4 Full Curriculum
Breakdown with Practice Test Questions,
Rationales, and Expert Study Tips
1. When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. B. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. ✅ D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. Rationale: Facial injuries can involve complex structures, and early notification allows the receiving facility to arrange for specialists such as oral surgeons, ENT, or plastic surgeons. Descriptive communication ensures timely and appropriate care. 2. Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. ✅ D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. Rationale: Anterior nosebleeds are the most common type and typically result from capillary bleeding in the septum. They are generally not severe and respond well to basic first aid. 3. Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. ✅ B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost.
Rationale: The vitreous humor fills the space behind the lens and helps maintain the eye's shape. It does not regenerate once lost, unlike the aqueous humor in the front of the eye.
4. You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. noticed the change during a meal. B. regularly sees a family physician. C. has a history of eye surgeries. ✅ D. is allergic to any medications. Rationale: Anisocoria (unequal pupils) may be benign if the patient has a known history of eye surgery or trauma. Ruling this out helps differentiate between a normal finding and a neurologic emergency. 5. A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: A. distraction. B. hyperflexion. C. axial loading. ✅ D. hyperextension. Rationale: Axial loading refers to the force transmitted vertically along the spine. Landing on the feet after a fall can cause compression injuries from the feet up to the spine. 6. A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 5 B. 3 ✅ C. 2 D. 4 Rationale: Abnormal flexion (decorticate posturing) scores a 3 in the Motor Response component of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), indicating serious brain injury.
B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. - - correct ans- - C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. diving. B. hangings. C. falls. D. compression. - - correct ans- - B. hangings. In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. B. does not cause pressure within the skull. C. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue. - - correct ans- - A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. lateral immobilization has been applied. D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. - - correct ans- - B. it causes a problem managing the airway.
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: Select one: A. cerebrum and meninges. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebellum and brain. D. meninges and spinal cord. - - correct ans- - The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. - - correct ans- - D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. C. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. - - correct ans- - B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the four-person log roll. B. the direct patient carry. C. the use of a scoop stretcher. D. the clothes drag. - - correct ans- - A. the four-person log roll.
B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. C. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. D. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. - - correct ans- - A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea - - correct ans- - B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. C. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. - - correct ans- - B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. weak.
C. rapid. D. slow. - - correct ans- - D. slow. A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. apply an AED and assess his BP. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. D. determine if he has cardiac problems. - - correct ans- - B. prepare for immediate transport. A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. C. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. - - correct ans- - A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pulmonary contusion.
B. they are routinely hypoxic C. their diaphragm is not functional D. they are consciously controlling ventilations - - correct ans- - A. their intercostal muscles are not developed Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. flying debris B. penetrating trauma C. blunt trauma D. high-velocity weapons - - correct ans- - C. blunt trauma Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. A rapid, irregular pulse B. Widening pulse pressure C. Engorged jugular veins D. Diminished breath sounds - - correct ans- - C. Engorged jugular veins If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. D. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. - - correct ans- - B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. primary assessment B. scene size-up C. patient history D. secondary assessment - - correct ans- - A. primary assessment In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. cardiac tamponade. B. pneumothorax. C. myocardial contusion. D. flail chest. - - correct ans- - B. pneumothorax. Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. Kussmaul respirations B. agonal respirations C. tachypnea D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations - - correct ans- - C. tachypnea The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. intercostal margin. B. costovertebral angle. C. diaphragm.
diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. pericardial tamponade. B. laceration of the aorta. C. massive hemothorax. D. tension pneumothorax. - - correct ans- - B. laceration of the aorta. You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. call for a paramedic ambulance. D. begin rapid transport at once. - - correct ans- - B. partially remove the dressing. You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. perform a focused secondary exam. B. insert an oropharyngeal airway. C. immediately request ALS support. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. - - correct ans- - C. immediately request ALS support.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. B. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. - - correct ans- - D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. hemorrhage B. hypovolemia C. infection D. evisceration - - correct ans- - C. infection All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. ureters. B. spleen. C. bladder. D. stomach. - - correct ans- - B. spleen. Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. B. the EMT must perform a thorough exam.
A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock B. are rarely life-threatening C. usually result in permanent damage D. are often life-threatening - - correct ans- - B. are rarely life-threatening Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. - - correct ans- - C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. C. the abdomen will become instantly distended. D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. - - correct ans- - D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. guarding. B. distention. C. crepitus. D. instability. - - correct ans- - A. guarding. When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient?
Select one: A. Only when ordered by medical direction B. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury D. Always during the secondary assessment - - correct ans- - C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. B. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. C. The kidneys are not well protected. D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. - - correct ans- - A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Bladder B. Stomach C. Liver D. Intestine - - correct ans- - C. Liver Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. C. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. - - correct ans- - B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
D. a hematoma in the flank region - - correct ans- - D. a hematoma in the flank region Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. describe the status of the suspect(s) B. be objective and factual C. include your opinion of the nature of the incident D. be subjective and summarize the crime - - correct ans- - B. be objective and factual Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. C. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. D. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. - - correct ans- - B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: A. pubic symphysis. B. femoral shaft. C. proximal femur. D. pelvic girdle. - - correct ans- - C. proximal femur. A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should:
Select one: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. D. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position. - - correct ans- - A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. D. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. - - correct ans- - A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. - - correct ans- - A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one:
