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THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT, Exams of Nursing

THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DIAGNOSIS AND MANAGEMENT.

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2024/2025

Available from 07/04/2025

Prof.Henshall
Prof.Henshall 🇬🇧

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THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DIAGNOSIS
AND MANAGEMENT
Neurology Exam: Disorders of the Central Nervous System
1. What is the central nervous system composed of?
A) Peripheral nerves
B) Brain and spinal cord
C) Muscles and bones
D) Heart and lungs
2. Which cells form the myelin sheath in the CNS?
A) Schwann cells
B) Astrocytes
C) Oligodendrocytes
D) Microglia
3. What is the most common cause of ischemic stroke?
A) Hemorrhage
B) Thromboembolism
C) Trauma
D) Infection
4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily deficient in Parkinson’s
disease?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
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THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM DIAGNOSIS

AND MANAGEMENT

Neurology Exam: Disorders of the Central Nervous System

  1. What is the central nervous system composed of?  A) Peripheral nerves  B) Brain and spinal cord ✔  C) Muscles and bones  D) Heart and lungs
  2. Which cells form the myelin sheath in the CNS?  A) Schwann cells  B) Astrocytes  C) Oligodendrocytes ✔  D) Microglia
  3. What is the most common cause of ischemic stroke?  A) Hemorrhage  B) Thromboembolism ✔  C) Trauma  D) Infection
  4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily deficient in Parkinson’s disease?  A) Serotonin  B) Dopamine ✔

 C) Acetylcholine  D) GABA

  1. Name a classic symptom of multiple sclerosis.  A) Optic neuritis ✔  B) Muscle hypertrophy  C) Memory loss  D) Seizures
  2. What imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting acute stroke?  A) X-ray  B) CT scan  C) MRI with diffusion-weighted imaging ✔  D) Ultrasound
  3. What is the hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease on histopathology?  A) Lewy bodies  B) Neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques ✔  C) Demyelination  D) Neuronal hyperplasia
  4. Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for vision?  A) Frontal  B) Parietal  C) Temporal
  1. What is the initial treatment for status epilepticus?  A) Phenytoin  B) Intravenous benzodiazepines ✔  C) Carbamazepine  D) Valproic acid
  2. Which area of the brain is affected in Wernicke’s aphasia?  A) Broca’s area  B) Superior temporal gyrus (Wernicke’s area) ✔  C) Occipital lobe  D) Parietal lobe
  3. Which infectious agent commonly causes meningitis in young adults?  A) Streptococcus pneumoniae  B) Neisseria meningitidis ✔  C) Haemophilus influenzae  D) Listeria monocytogenes
  4. What is the triad of symptoms in normal pressure hydrocephalus?  A) Headache, vomiting, seizures  B) Gait disturbance, dementia, urinary incontinence ✔  C) Fever, neck stiffness, photophobia  D) Weakness, numbness, diplopia
  1. Which genetic disorder is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and pseudohypertrophy?  A) Becker muscular dystrophy  B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy ✔  C) Myotonic dystrophy  D) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
  2. What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?  A) Trauma  B) Ruptured berry aneurysm ✔  C) Hypertension  D) Arteriovenous malformation
  3. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?  A) Cerebellum ✔  B) Brainstem  C) Basal ganglia  D) Thalamus
  4. What is the mainstay of treatment for acute migraine attacks?  A) NSAIDs  B) Beta blockers  C) Triptans ✔  D) Calcium channel blockers
  1. Which vitamin deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?  A) Vitamin D  B) Vitamin C  C) Vitamin B12 ✔  D) Vitamin A
  2. What is the most common cause of dementia worldwide?  A) Vascular dementia  B) Alzheimer’s disease ✔  C) Lewy body dementia  D) Frontotemporal dementia
  3. Which medication is used as first-line therapy for generalized tonic-clonic seizures?  A) Phenytoin  B) Valproic acid ✔  C) Carbamazepine  D) Ethosuximide
  4. What is the most common demyelinating disease of the CNS?  A) Guillain-Barré syndrome  B) Multiple sclerosis ✔  C) Neuromyelitis optica  D) Central pontine myelinolysis
  1. Which part of the brain is affected in Huntington’s disease?  A) Hippocampus  B) Caudate nucleus ✔  C) Cerebellum  D) Thalamus
  2. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used for?  A) Measuring blood pressure  B) Assessing level of consciousness ✔  C) Testing reflexes  D) Evaluating muscle strength
  3. Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?  A) Facial nerve  B) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) ✔  C) Glossopharyngeal nerve  D) Trigeminal nerve
  4. What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?  A) Trauma  B) Hypertension ✔  C) Aneurysm rupture  D) Brain tumor
  5. Which test is most useful for diagnosing myasthenia gravis?

 B) Radial nerve  C) Median nerve ✔  D) Axillary nerve

  1. What is the most common cause of chronic traumatic encephalopathy?  A) Stroke  B) Repeated head injuries ✔  C) Infection  D) Tumor
  2. Which neurotransmitter is increased in Huntington’s disease?  A) Dopamine ✔  B) Serotonin  C) Acetylcholine  D) GABA
  3. What is Broca’s area responsible for?  A) Speech production ✔  B) Vision  C) Hearing  D) Balance
  4. Which imaging is preferred for acute head trauma?  A) MRI

 B) Non-contrast CT scan ✔  C) Ultrasound  D) PET scan

  1. What is the most common cause of seizures in the elderly?  A) Brain tumor  B) Stroke ✔  C) Infection  D) Trauma
  2. Which syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral facial paralysis and contralateral body weakness?  A) Millard-Gubler syndrome ✔  B) Horner’s syndrome  C) Wallenberg syndrome  D) Brown-Sequard syndrome
  3. What is a common side effect of levodopa therapy in Parkinson’s disease?  A) Sedation  B) Dyskinesias ✔  C) Weight gain  D) Hypertension
  4. Which disease is associated with “onion bulb” formations in peripheral nerves?  A) Guillain-Barre syndrome

 B) Central pontine myelin lysis ✔  C) Guillain-Barre syndrome  D) Neuromyelitis optica

  1. What is the first-line treatment for acute cluster headache?  A) Beta blockers  B) High-flow oxygen therapy ✔  C) Triptans  D) NSAIDs