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Respiratory and Cardiovascular Conditions, Exams of Nursing

A wide range of respiratory and cardiovascular conditions, including lower airways, throat, nasal, and sternal issues, as well as various signs and symptoms, diagnostic tests, and treatment considerations. It delves into topics such as pleural friction rubs, airway obstructions, blood gas analysis, shock stages, and fluid/electrolyte imbalances. A comprehensive overview of these medical conditions, their underlying mechanisms, and the appropriate nursing interventions. By studying this document, students can gain a deeper understanding of the pathophysiology, assessment, and management of respiratory and cardiovascular disorders, which are crucial for providing effective patient care in various healthcare settings.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/01/2024

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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
REVIEWER
CJBO
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
1. Which patient below would be at risk for
experiencing high-pitched wheezes? Select all that
apply:
A. A patient with COPD.
B. A patient with epiglottitis.
C. A patient with heart failure.
D. A patient with asthma.
2. Fill-in-the-blank: Stridor can occur ___.
A. during inspiration or expiration.
B. during inspiration only.
C. during expiration only.
D. during the ending of inspiration only.
3. The nurse is educating a patient’s parent on how to
identify stridor. The nurse asks the parent to verbalize
where the sound is mainly located. Which answer by
the parent is correct?
A. lower airways
B. throat
C. nasal
D. sternal
4. Which characteristic below is found with a pleural
friction rub?
A. high-pitched
B. disappears with suctioning
C. pain with coughing, deep breathing, or laughing
D. mainly located in the smaller airways like the
bronchioles
5. True or False: A pleural friction rub occurs because
the layers around the lungs known as the tunica
adventitia pleura and parietal pleura are inflamed
and rubbing against each other.
The answer is FALSE. The statement should say: “A pleural
friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs
known as the VISCERAL pleura (NOT tunica adventitia
pleura) and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing
against each other.
6. Where are fine crackles usually located in the
respiratory system? Select-all-that-apply:
A. Bronchi
B. Trachea
C. Alveoli
D. Bronchioles
7. Which statement below best summarizes why fine
crackles are occurring in a patient?
A. “The pleural layers in the lungs are inflamed and rub
against each other creating a harsh-grating sound.”
B. “When inhaled air enters into small airways that are
collapsed, they suddenly explode open leading to a
crackling sound.”
C. “As air leaves the trachea and bronchus it hits
secretions like mucus and fluid, which creates a snoring
like sound.”
D. “The narrowing of the larynx and trachea from either
an object or swelling leads a popping sound on
inhalation.”
8. How would a nurse know they were hearing a
pleural friction rub based on the timing of the sound?
A. The sound is noted on inspiration and expiration.
B. The sound is noted at the beginning of expiration.
C. The sound is noted at the end of inspiration and
extends into expiration.
D. The sound is noted on expiration only.
9. Which characteristic below is found with a pleural
friction rub?
A. high-pitched
B. disappears with suctioning
C. pain with coughing, deep breathing, or laughing
D. mainly located in the smaller airways like the
bronchioles
10. While assessing a patient’s lung sounds the nurse
notes a pleural friction rub. What defining
characteristic below best describes the sound the
nurse auscultated?
A. “snoring”
B. “popping”
C. “musical”
D. “harsh-grating”
11. True or False: A pleural friction rub occurs because
the layers around the lungs known as the tunica
adventitia pleura and parietal pleura are inflamed
and rubbing against each other.
The answer is FALSE. The statement should say: “A pleural
friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs
known as the VISCERAL pleura (NOT tunica adventitia
pleura) and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing
against each other.
12. Select the statement below that provides correct
information about a pleural friction rub:
A. “This sound occurs as air leaves the trachea and
bronchus and hits secretions like mucus and fluid,
creating a snoring like sound.”
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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM

REVIEWER

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

  1. Which patient below would be at risk for experiencing high-pitched wheezes? Select all that apply: A. A patient with COPD. B. A patient with epiglottitis. C. A patient with heart failure. D. A patient with asthma.
  2. Fill-in-the-blank: Stridor can occur _____. A. during inspiration or expiration. B. during inspiration only. C. during expiration only. D. during the ending of inspiration only.
  3. The nurse is educating a patient’s parent on how to identify stridor. The nurse asks the parent to verbalize where the sound is mainly located. Which answer by the parent is correct? A. lower airways B. throat C. nasal D. sternal
  4. Which characteristic below is found with a pleural friction rub? A. high-pitched B. disappears with suctioning C. pain with coughing, deep breathing, or laughing D. mainly located in the smaller airways like the bronchioles
  5. True or False: A pleural friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs known as the tunica adventitia pleura and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing against each other. The answer is FALSE. The statement should say: “A pleural friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs known as the VISCERAL pleura (NOT tunica adventitia pleura) and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing against each other.
  6. Where are fine crackles usually located in the respiratory system? Select-all-that-apply: A. Bronchi B. Trachea C. Alveoli D. Bronchioles
  7. Which statement below best summarizes why fine crackles are occurring in a patient? A. “The pleural layers in the lungs are inflamed and rub against each other creating a harsh-grating sound.” B. “When inhaled air enters into small airways that are collapsed, they suddenly explode open leading to a crackling sound.” C. “As air leaves the trachea and bronchus it hits secretions like mucus and fluid, which creates a snoring like sound.” D. “The narrowing of the larynx and trachea from either an object or swelling leads a popping sound on inhalation.”
    1. How would a nurse know they were hearing a pleural friction rub based on the timing of the sound? A. The sound is noted on inspiration and expiration. B. The sound is noted at the beginning of expiration. C. The sound is noted at the end of inspiration and extends into expiration. D. The sound is noted on expiration only.
    2. Which characteristic below is found with a pleural friction rub? A. high-pitched B. disappears with suctioning C. pain with coughing, deep breathing, or laughing D. mainly located in the smaller airways like the bronchioles
    3. While assessing a patient’s lung sounds the nurse notes a pleural friction rub. What defining characteristic below best describes the sound the nurse auscultated? A. “snoring” B. “popping” C. “musical” D. “harsh-grating”
    4. True or False: A pleural friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs known as the tunica adventitia pleura and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing against each other. The answer is FALSE. The statement should say: “A pleural friction rub occurs because the layers around the lungs known as the VISCERAL pleura (NOT tunica adventitia pleura) and parietal pleura are inflamed and rubbing against each other.
    5. Select the statement below that provides correct information about a pleural friction rub: A. “This sound occurs as air leaves the trachea and bronchus and hits secretions like mucus and fluid, creating a snoring like sound.”

B. “It’s occurring because there is narrowing of the larynx and trachea due to swelling from an infection or blockage from an object.” C. “It can present with cases of pleurisy.” D. “It sounds like the light crackling or popping of a fire.”

  1. Bronchial breath sounds can be auscultated where? A. Peripheral lung fields B. Sternal area C. Mid-scapulae area D. Tracheal area
  2. These type of breath sounds are found at the site of the bronchi and are located anteriorly at the 1st and 2nd intercostal space & posteriorly in between the scapulae? A. Crackles B. Wheezes C. Bronchovesicular D. Vesicular
  3. These breath sounds are found anteriorly and posteriorly throughout the peripheral lung fields? A. High-pitched wheezes B. Vesicular C. Discontinuous D. Bronchial
  4. While assessing a patient's lung sounds you note bronchial breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields. What could this finding represent? A. This is a normal finding. B. Pulmonary emboli C. Lung consolidation like with pneumonia D. Pleuritis
  5. Select all of the following that are considered discontinuous breath sounds: A. High-pitched wheeze B. Stridor C. Pleural friction rub D. Fine crackles E. Low-pitched wheeze F. Coarse Crackles
  6. True or False: Low-pitched wheezes are polyphonic sounds that can be cleared when coughing.
  • True
  • False
  1. This lung sound is continuous, high-pitched with musical instrument sound that is polyphonic and occurs mainly during expiration but can be present with inspiration as well? A. Stridor B. Fine crackles C. High-pitched wheeze D. High-pitched crackles
    1. On auscultation of a patient in respiratory distress, you hear a high-pitched, harsh sound that is monophonic and is present only during inspiration. This is known as: A. Stridor B. Vesicular C. Rales D. Rhonchi
    2. You are auscultating a patient's lung sounds. During your assessment, you note there is a low-pitched harsh, grating sound that sounds like a pleural friction rub. However, you're not sure if this is a pleural friction rub or pericardial friction rub. What do you do next to determine the difference? A. Have the patient cough and see if the sound clears B. Assess the posterior lower lobe only C. Have the patient hold their breath and note if the sound is still present D. Place the patient in supine position and reassess for the sound
    3. True or False: The left lung has 3 lobes: left upper lobe, left middle lobe, and left lower lobe.
    • True
    • False
    1. True or False: During auscultation, the anterior part of the chest mainly provides an assessment of the upper lobes of the right and left lungs, while the posterior part of the chest provides mainly provides an assessment of the lower lobes of the right and left lungs.
    • True
    • False
    1. When auscultating the anterior part of the chest, specifically the apex of the lungs, it is best to auscultate where with the stethoscope? A. Slightly above the clavicle B. 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular C. 4th intercostal space mid-clavicular D. 6th intercostal space mid-axillary line
    2. The right middle lobe is auscultated with the stethoscope where? A. Posteriorly on the right at the 4th intercostal space B. Anteriorly on the right at the 4th intercostal space C. Anteriorly between C7 to T D. Posteriorly between T3 to T
    3. When auscultating the posterior part of the chest the upper lobes are found? A. Between C9 to T B. Between T3 to T

C. >50 mmHg D. <18 mmHg

  1. You’re precepting a nursing student who is assisting you care for a patient on mechanical ventilation with PEEP for treatment of ARDS. The student asks you why the PEEP setting is at 10 mmHg. Your response is: A. “This pressure setting assists the patient with breathing in and out and helps improve air flow.” B. “This pressure setting will help prevent a decrease in cardiac output and hyperinflation of the lungs.” C. “This pressure setting helps prevent fluid from filling the alveoli sacs.” D. “This pressure setting helps open the alveoli sacs that are collapsed during exhalation.”
  2. True or False: Tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis and it only affects the lungs. Answer: FALSE …. tuberculosis is a contagious bacterial infection caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis that affects the lungs AND other systems of the body like the joints, kidneys, brain, spine, liver etc.
  3. A 55 - year-old male patient is admitted with an active tuberculosis infection. The nurse will place the patient in ___________________ precautions and will always wear _____________________ when providing patient care? A. droplet, respirator B. airborne, respirator C. contact and airborne, surgical mask D. droplet, surgical mask
  4. Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis? A. This bacterium is an anaerobic type of bacteria. B. It is an alkali bacterium that stains bright red during an acid-fast smear test. C. It is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria. D. It’s an acid-fact bacterium that stains bright green during an acid-fast smear test.
  5. Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. During transport to endoscopy, the patient will need to wear? A. N95 mask B. Surgical mask C. No special PPE is needed D. Face mask with shield
  6. You are assessing your newly admitted patients who are all presenting with atypical signs and symptoms of a possible lung infection. The physician suspects tuberculosis. So, therefore, the patients are being monitored and tested for the disease. Select all the risk factors below that increases a patient’s risk for developing tuberculosis: A. Diabetes B. Liver failure C. Long-term care resident D. Inmate E. IV drug user F. HIV G. U.S. resident
  7. Your patient is diagnosed with a latent tuberculosis infection. Select all the correct statements that reflect this condition: A. “The patient will not need treatment unless it progresses to an active tuberculosis infection.” B. “The patient is not contagious and will have no signs and symptoms.” C. “The patient will have a positive tuberculin skin test or IGRA test. D. “The patient will have an abnormal chest x-ray.” E. “The patient’s sputum will test positive for mycobacterium tuberculosis.”
  8. A 52-year old female patient is receiving medical treatment for a possible tuberculosis infection. The patient is a U.S. resident but grew-up in a foreign country. She reports that as a child she received the BCG vaccine (bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine). Which physician’s order below would require the nurse to ask the doctor for an order clarification? A. PPD (Mantoux test) B. Chest X-ray C. QuantiFERON-TB Gold (QFT) D. Sputum culture
  9. You’re teaching a group of long-term care health givers about the signs and symptoms of tuberculosis. What signs and symptoms will you include in your education? A. Cough for a minimum of 6 weeks B. Night sweats C. Weight gain D. Hemoptysis E. Chills F. Fever G. Chest pain
  10. A patient has a positive PPD skin test that shows an 8 mm induration. As the nurse you know that: A. The patient will need to immediately be placed in droplet precautions and started on a medication regime. B. The patient will need a chest x-ray and sputum culture to confirm the test results before treatment is provided.

C. The patient will need an IGRA test to help differentiate between a latent tuberculosis infection versus an active tuberculosis infection. D. The patient will need to repeat the skin test in 48- 72 hours to confirm the results.

  1. A patient has a PPD skin test (Mantoux test). As the nurse you tell the patient to report back to the office in _________ so the results can be interpreted? A. 24 - 48 hours B. 12 - 24 hours C. 48 - 72 hours D. 24 - 72 hours
  2. A 48-year old homeless man, who is living in a local homeless shelter and is an IV drug user, has arrived to the clinic to have his PPD skin test assessed. What is considered a positive result? A. 5 mm induration B. 15 mm induration C. 9 mm induration D. 10 mm induration
  3. The physician orders an acid-fast bacilli sputum culture smear on a patient with possible tuberculosis. How will you collect this? A. Collect 2 different sputum specimens 12 hours apart B. Collect 3 different sputum specimens (one in the morning, afternoon, and at night) C. Collect 3 different sputum specimens on 3 different days D. Collect 2 different sputum specimens on 2 different days The answer is C. This is how an AFB sputum culture is collected.
  4. A patient receiving medical treatment for an active tuberculosis infection asks when she can starting going out in public again. You respond that she is no longer contagious when: A. She has 3 negative sputum cultures B. Her signs and symptoms improve C. She has completed the full medication regime D. Her chest x-ray is normal E. She has been on tuberculosis medications for about 3 weeks
  5. As the nurse you know that one of the reasons for an increase in multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis is: A. Incorrect medication ordered B. Increase in tuberculosis cases nationwide C. Incorrect route of drug ordered D. Noncompliance due to duration of medication treatment needed
    1. Your patient, who is receiving Pyrazinamide, report stiffness and extreme pain in the right big toe. The site is extremely red, swollen, and warm. You notify the physician and as the nurse you anticipated the doctor will order? A. Calcium level B. Vitamin B6 level C. Uric acid level D. Amylase level
    2. You note your patient’s sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and educate him that which medication below is causing this finding? A. Ethambutol B. Streptomycin C. Isoniazid D. Rifampin
    3. A patient with active tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol. As the nurse you make it priority to assess the patient’s? A. hearing B. mental status C. vitamin B6 level D. vision
    4. A patient taking Isoniazid (INH) should be monitored for what deficiency? A. Vitamin C B. Calcium C. Vitamin B D. Potassium
    5. A patient is taking Streptomycin. Which finding below requires the nurse to notify the physician? A. Patient reports a change in vision. B. Patient reports a metallic taste in the mouth. C. The patient has ringing in their ears. D. The patient has a persistent dry cough.
    6. A patient with asthma is prescribed to take inhaled Salmeterol and Fluticasone for long-term management of asthma. You observe the patient taking these medications. Which option below best describes the correct order in how to take these medications? A. The patient inhales the Salmeterol first and then waits 5 minutes before inhaling the Fluticasone. B. The patient inhales the Fluticasone first and then waits 5 minutes before inhaling the Salmeterol. C. The patient inhales the Salmeterol first and then waits 1 minute before inhaling the Fluticasone. D. The patient inhales the Fluticasone and immediately inhales the Salmeterol.

D. Shellfish

  1. Which medication below blocks the function of Leukotriene for the treatment of asthma? A. Salmeterol B. Theophylline C. Tiotropim D. Montelukast
  2. The physician orders the patient to start taking Omalizumab. How will you administer this medication as the nurse? A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Orally D. Subcutaneously
  3. A patient received a nebulizer of Albuterol. What is a side effect of this medication? A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Drowsiness D. Feeling cold
  4. A patient is admitted with a chest wound and experiencing extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypoxia. The chest wound is located on the left mid- axillary area of the chest. On assessment, you note there is unequal rise and fall of the chest with absent breath sounds on the left side. You also note a “sucking” sound when the patient inhales and exhales. The patient’s chest x-ray shows a pneumothorax. What type of pneumothorax is this known as? A. Closed pneumothorax B. Open pneumothorax C. Tension pneumothorax D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
  5. In regards to the patient in the question above, which of the following options below is a nursing intervention you would provide to this patient? A. Place the patient in supine position B. Place a non-occlusive dressing over the chest wound C. Place an occlusive dressing over the chest wound and tape it on three sides D. Prepare the patient for a thoracentesis
  6. A patient is diagnosed with a primary spontaneous pneumothorax. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about this type of pneumothorax? A. It can be caused by the rupture of a pulmonary bleb. B. It can occur in patients who are young, tall and thin without a history of lung disease. C. Smoking increases the chances of a patient developing a spontaneous pneumothorax. D. It is most likely to occur in patients with COPD, asthma, and cystic fibrosis.
    1. Which of the following is a LATE sign of the development of a tension pneumothorax? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Tracheal deviation D. Dyspnea
    2. While caring for a patient with a suspected pneumothorax, you note there are several areas on the patient’s skin that appear to be “bulging” out. These “bulging” areas are located on the patient’s neck, face, and abdomen. On palpation on these areas, you note they feel “crunchy”. When charting your findings you would refer to this finding as? A. Subcutaneous paresthesia B. Pigment molle C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Veisalgia
    3. You’re providing care to a patient with a pneumothorax who has a chest tube. On assessment of the chest tube system, you note there is no fluctuation of water in the water seal chamber as the patient inhales and exhales. You check the system for kinks and find none. What is your next nursing action? A. Keep monitoring the patient because this is a normal finding. B. Increase wall suction to the system until the water fluctuates in the water seal chamber. C. Assess patient’s lung sounds to assess if the affected lung has re-expanded. D. Notify the physician.
    4. A patient is receiving mechanical ventilation with PEEP. The patient had developed a tension pneumothorax. Select ALL the signs and symptoms that can present with this condition: A. Hypotension B. Jugular Venous Distention C. Bradycardia D. Tracheal deviation E. Hyperemia F. Tachypnea
    5. A patient has a chest tube for treatment of a pneumothorax in the left lung. Which finding during your assessment requires immediate nursing intervention? A. The water seal chamber has intermittent bubbling.

B. The patient has slight tracheal deviation to the right side. C. The water seal chamber fluctuates while the patient inhales and exhales. D. The patient complains of tenderness at the chest tube insertion site.

  1. Which statement is CORRECT about a tension pneumothorax? A. This condition happens when an opening to the intrapleural space creates a two-way valve which causes pressure to build up in the space leading to shifting of the mediastinum. B. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency and is treated with needle decompression. C. Tracheal deviation is an early sign of a tension pneumothorax D. An open pneumothorax is the only cause of a tension pneumothorax.
  2. A patient receiving treatment for a pneumothorax calls on the call light to tell you something is wrong with their chest tube. When you arrive to the room you note that the drainage system has fallen on its side and there is a large crack in the system. What is your next PRIORITY? A. Place the patient in supine position and clamp the tubing. B. Notify the physician immediately. C. Disconnect the drainage system and get a new one. D. Disconnect the tubing from the drainage system and insert the tubing 1 inch into a bottle of sterile water and obtain a new system.
  3. You are providing care to a patient with a chest tube. On assessment of the drainage system, you note continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber and oscillation. Which of the following is the CORRECT nursing intervention for this type of finding? A. Reposition the patient because the tubing is kinked. B. Continue to monitor the drainage system. C. Increase the suction to the drainage system until the bubbling stops. D. Check the drainage system for an air leak.
  4. A patient is receiving positive pressure mechanical ventilation and has a chest tube. When assessing the water seal chamber what do you expect to find? A. The water in the chamber will increase during inspiration and decrease during expiration. B. There will be continuous bubbling noted in the chamber. C. The water in the chamber will decrease during inspiration and increase during expiration. D. The water in the chamber will not move.
    1. What type of chest tube system does this statement describe? This chest drainage system has no water column to control suction but uses a suction monitor bellow that balances the wall suction and you can adjust water suction pressure using the rotary suction dial on the side of the system. It allows for higher suction pressure levels, has no bubbling sounds, and water does not evaporate from it as with other systems. A. Mediastinal chest tube system B. Dry suction chest tube system C. Wet suction chest tube system D. Dry-Wet suction chest tube system
    2. The patient in room 2569 calls on the call light to tell you something is wrong with his chest tube. When you arrive to the room you note that the drainage system has fallen on its side and is leaking drainage onto the floor from a crack in the system. What is your next PRIORITY? A. Place the patient in supine position and clamp the tubing. B. Notify the physician immediately. C. Disconnect the drainage system and get a new one. D. Disconnect the tubing from the drainage system and insert the tubing 1 inch into a bottle of sterile water and obtain a new system.
    3. You’re assessing a patient who is post-opt from a chest tube insertion. On assessment, you note there is 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the drainage chamber, fluctuation of water in the water seal chamber when the patient breathes in and out, and bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Document your findings as normal. B. Assess for an air leak due to bubbling noted in the suction chamber. C. Notify the physician about the drainage. D. Milk the tubing to ensure patency of the tubes.
    4. A patient is recovering from a pneumothorax and has a chest tube present. Which of the following is an appropriate finding when assessing the chest tube drainage system? A. Intermittent bubbling may be noted in the water seal chamber. B. 200 cc of drainage per hour is expected during recovery of a pneumothorax. C. The chest tube is positioned at the patient’s chest level to facilitate drainage.

productive cough with dyspnea on excretion. Arterial blood gases show a low oxygen level and high carbon dioxide level in the blood. On assessment, the patient has cyanosis in the lips and edema in the abdomen and legs. Based on your nursing knowledge and the patient’s symptoms, you suspect the patient suffers from what type of COPD? A. Emphysema B. Pneumonia C. Chronic bronchitis D. Pneumothorax

  1. A patient with emphysema may present with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT? A. Barrel chest B. Hyperinflation of the lung C. Hypoventilation D. Hypercapnia
  2. The term blue bloater is used to describe patients with? A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Left-sided heart failure C. Chronic Bronchitis D. Emphysema
  3. A patient is newly diagnosed with COPD due to chronic bronchitis. You’re providing education to the patient about this disease process. Which statement by the patient indicates they understood your teaching about this condition? A. “If I stop smoking, it will cure my condition.” B. “Complications from this condition can lead to pulmonary hypertension and right-sided heart failure.” C. “I’m at risk for low levels of red blood cells due to hypoxia and may require blood transfusions during acute illnesses.” D. “My respiratory system is stimulated to breathe due to high carbon dioxide levels rather than low oxygen levels, as with people who have healthy lungs.
  4. An alarm beeps notifying you that one of your patient’s oxygen saturation is reading 89%. You arrive to the patient’s room, and see the patient comfortably resting in bed watching television. The patient is already on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. The patient is admitted for COPD exacerbation. Your next nursing action would be: A. Continue to monitor the patient B. Increase the patient’s oxygen level to 3 L C. Notify the doctor for further orders D. Turn off the alarm settings
  5. You are providing teaching to a patient with chronic COPD on how to perform diaphragmatic breathing. This technique helps do the following: A. Increase the breathing rate to prevent hypoxemia B. Decrease the use of the abdominal muscles C. Encourages the use of accessory muscles to help with breathing D. Strengthen the diaphragm
  6. A patient with severe COPD is having an episode of extreme shortness of breath and requests their inhaler. Which type of inhaler ordered by the physician would provide the FASTEST relief for the patient based on this particular situation? A. Spiriva B. Salmeterol C. Symbicort D. Albuterol
  7. Which of the following statements are incorrect about discharge teaching that you would provide to a patient with COPD? Select-all-that-apply: A. “It is best to eat three large meals a day that are relatively low in calories.” B. “Avoid going outside during extremely hot or cold days.” C. “It is important to receive the Pneumovax vaccine annually.” D. “Smoking cessation can help improve your symptoms.”
  8. A patient is ordered by the physician to take Pulmicort and Spiriva via inhaler. How should the patient take this medication? A. The patient should use the medications every 2 hours for acute episodes of shortness of breath. B. The patient should use the Spiriva first and then 5 minutes later the Pulmicort. C. The patient should use the Pulmicort first and then the Spiriva 5 minutes later. D. The patient should use the medications at the same exact time, regardless of the order.
  9. In regards to question 10, which action by the patient demonstrates they know how to properly use this medication? A. The patient rinses their mouth after using the Spiriva inhaler. B. The patient rinses their mouth after using the Pulmicort inhaler. C. The patient dispenses of the inhalers. D. The patient coughs 2 times after using the Pulmicort inhaler.
  10. A patient with COPD is reporting depression and thoughts of suicide. The patient states, “I just feel like ending it all.” You assess the patient’s health history

and note that the patient was recently started on which medication that could cause this side effect: A. Atrovent B. Prednisone C. Roflumilast D. Theophylline

  1. A patient is ordered at 1400 to take Theophylline. You’re assessing the patient’s morning lab results and note that the Theophylline level drawn this morning reads: 15 mcg/mL. You’re next nursing action is to? A. Administer the dose at 1400 as ordered B. Notify the physician for further orders C. Hold the 1400 dose D. Collect another blood sample to confirm the level
  2. You are providing care to a patient with COPD who is receiving medical treatment for exacerbation. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The patient is experiencing extreme hyperglycemia. In addition, the patient has multiple areas of bruising on the arms and legs. Which medication ordered for this patient can cause hyperglycemia and bruising? A. Prednisone B. Atrovent C. Flagyl D. Levaquin
  3. A patient is presenting with mild symptoms of pneumonia. The doctor diagnoses the patient with “walking pneumonia”. From your nursing knowledge, you know this type of pneumonia is caused by what type of infectious agent? A. Fungi B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Influenza
  4. A patient was admitted to the intensive care unit 48 hours ago for treatment of a gunshot wound. The patient has recently developed a productive cough and a fever of 104.3 ‘F. The patient is breathing on their own and doesn’t require mechanical ventilation. On assessment, you note coarse crackles in the right lower lobe. A chest x-ray shows infiltrates with consolidation in the right lower lobe. Based on this specific patient scenario, this is known as what type of pneumonia? A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Ventilator acquired pneumonia C. Hospital-acquired pneumonia D. Community-acquired pneumonia
  5. Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing pneumonia? Select-all-that-apply: A. A 53 year old female recovering from abdominal surgery. B. A 69 year old patient who recently received the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. C. A 42 year old male with COPD and is on continuous oxygen via nasal cannula. D. A 8 month old with RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) infection.
  6. You’re caring for a patient with pneumonia. The patient has just started treatment for pneumonia and is still experiencing hypoxemia. You know that respiratory acidosis is very common with patients with pneumonia. Which arterial blood gases below represent respiratory acidosis that is NOT compensated? A. pH 7.29, PaCO2 55, HCO3 23, PO2 85 B. pH 7.48, PaCO2 35, HCO3 22, PO2 85 C. pH 7.20, PaCO2 20, HCO3 28, PO2 85 D. pH 7.55, PaCO 63, HCO3 19, PO2 85
  7. Which of the following are typical signs and symptoms of pneumonia? Select-all-that-apply: A. Stridor B. Coarse crackles C. Oxygen saturation less than 90% D. Non-productive, nagging cough E. Elevated white blood cells F. Low PCO2 of less than 35 G. Tachypnea
  8. You’re educating a patient with pneumonia how to deep breathe by using an incentive spirometer. Which of the following is the correct way to use this device? A. Encourage the patient to use it twice a day. B. The patient exhales into the device rapidly and then coughs. C. The patient inhales slowly from the device until no longer able, and then holds breath for 6 seconds and exhales. D. The patient rapidly inhales 10 times from the device and then exhales for 6 seconds.
  9. A 72 year-old male patient who is diagnosed with bilateral lower lobe pneumonia is admitted to your unit. The patient has a history of systolic heart failure and arthritis. On assessment, you note the patient has a respiratory rate of 21, oxygen saturation 93% on 2L nasal cannula, is alert & oriented, and has a productive cough with green/yellowish sputum. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this patient based on your assessment findings and the patient’s diagnosis? Select-all-that- apply: A. Keep head-of-the-bed less than 30 degrees at all times. B. Collect sputum cultures.

B. Macau, China C. Guangzhous, China D. Beijing, China

  1. COVID- 19 is genetically similar to what other coronavirus but it’s actually a different virus? A. MERS B. SARS
  2. What is the name of the virus that causes COVID-19? A. SARS-CoV- 1 B. HCoV-Co C. MERS-CoV D. SARS-CoV- 2
  3. How is COVID-19 PRIMARILY spread to others? A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Blood D. Fecal-oral
  4. Select the signs and symptoms of COVID-19: A. Fever B. Cough C. Sore throat D. Fatigue E. Shortness of breath
  5. What are some preventive measures the nurse can teach the members of the community on how to prevent acquiring COVID-19? Select all that apply: A. Handwashing B. Wearing a facemask when going around others C. Covering mouth and nose when sneezing and coughing D. Avoiding others who are sick E. Staying home when sick F. Social distancing at a distance of 2 feet G. Avoid eating to-go foods
  6. TRUE or FALSE: A person with COVID-19 can transmit the virus even though they are asymptomatic. The answer is TRUE.

NEUROLOGIC SYSTEM

  1. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses what areas of response to stimuli? Select all that apply: A. Auditory response B. Verbal response C. Tactile response D. Eye-opening response E. Motor response
    1. During the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assessment the nurse applies a central painful stimulus to test the best motor response. Which of the following is NOT this type of stimulus? A. Trapezius squeeze B. Fingernail bed pressure C. Supraorbital pressure
    2. A patient has experienced a brain injury. You note that written in the progress notes the physician says the patient has a GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4). What is the level of brain injury in this patient? A. Mild brain injury B. Moderate brain injury C. Severe brain injury
    3. What Glasgow Coma Scale score usually requires intubation because the airway reflexes are affected? A. 10 or less B. 9 or greater C. 8 or less D. 10 or greater
    4. True or False: The nurse is assessing the Glasgow Coma Scale in a patient, but is unable to assess the best verbal response due to intubation. Therefore, the nurse should assigned 1 point for the best verbal response. The answer is FALSE : If a certain response can’t be tested like in this situation, the nurse should document it as NOT TESTABLE. The nurse should NOT assign a score of 1.
    5. A patient with a traumatic brain injury has sustained multiple fractures to the face and eyes. When testing the best motor response, the nurse notes the patient is unable to perform a motor command based on a verbal stimulus. The nurse attempts to use a pressure stimulus to test the motor response. What type of pressure or painful stimuli should the nurse avoid in this patient? A. Fingernail bed pressure B. Trapezius squeeze C. Supraorbital pressure D. Toenail bed pressure
    6. You’re assessing a patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale at the bedside. What is the patient’s score based on these findings: when you arrive to the patient’s bedside the patient is looking around, the patient tells you they are at a concert hall and the year is 1960 (it is 2022) but they state their correct name, and they are open to successfully open their mouth and stick out their tongue. A. GCS 14 (E4 V4 M6) B. GCS 11 (E3 V3 M5) C. GCS 15 (E4 V5 M6) D. GCS 13 (E4 V3 M6)
    7. You’re assessing a patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale at the bedside. What is the patient’s score based on

these findings: when you arrive to the patient’s bedside the patient’s eyes are closed, but they open when you speak to the patient, the patient doesn’t respond appropriately to questions asked and says words that don’t make sense. In addition, the patient can’t obey a motor command. Therefore, when you apply a central stimulus the patient moves to locate and remove the stimulus. A. GCS 12 (E3 V4 M5) B. GCS 8 (E2 V4 M2) C. GCS 11 (E3 V3 M5) D. GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4)

  1. You’re assessing a patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale at the bedside. What is the patient’s score based on these findings: when you arrive to the patient’s bedside the patient’s eyes are closed but they open when you speak to the patient. The nurse cannot assess best verbal response because the patient is intubated. In addition, the patient can’t obey a motor command. Therefore, when you apply a central stimulus the patient flexes to withdraw from the stimulus. A. GCS 8 (E3 V1 M4) B. GCS 7T (E3 Vt M4) C. GCS 9 (E3 V1 M5) D. GCS 6T (E3 Vt M3)
  2. You’re assessing a patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale at the bedside. What is the patient’s score based on these findings: when you arrive to the patient’s bedside the patient’s eyes are closed and don’t open when spoken to. The nurse applies a peripheral painful stimulus, and the patient’s eyes open. When asked questions the patient groans and moans noises. In addition, the patient can’t obey a motor command. Therefore, when you apply a central stimulus the patient flexes to withdraw from the stimulus. A. GCS 12 (E3 V4 M5) B. GCS 8 (E2 V4 M2) C. GCS 8 (E2 V2 M4) D. GCS 10 (E3 V3 M4)
  3. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing a condition called autonomic dysreflexia? A. A 24-year-old male patient with a traumatic brain injury. B. A 15-year-old female patient with a spinal cord injury at C7. C. A 35-year-old male patient with a spinal cord injury at L6. D. A 42 - year-old male patient recovering from a hemorrhagic stroke.
  4. Your patient, who has a spinal cord injury at T3, states they are experiencing a throbbing headache. What is your NEXT nursing action? A. Perform a bladder scan B. Perform a rectal digital examination C. Assess the patient’s blood pressure D. Administer a PRN medication to alleviate pain and provide a dark, calm environment.
    1. You’re performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient with a spinal cord injury at T6. The patient is restless, sweaty, and extremely flushed. You assess the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate. The patient’s blood pressure is 140/98 and heart rate is
    2. You look at the patient’s chart and find that their baseline blood pressure is 106/76 and heart rate is
    3. What action should the nurse take FIRST? A. Reassess the patient’s blood pressure. B. Check the patient’s blood glucose. C. Position the patient at 90 degrees and lower the legs. D. Provide cooling blankets for the patient.
    4. You’re providing an in-service to a group of new nurse graduates on the causes of autonomic dysreflexia. Select all the most common causes you will discuss during the in-service: A. Hypoglycemia B. Distended bladder C. Sacral pressure injury D. Fecal impaction E. Urinary tract infection
    5. After taking all the necessary steps for a patient who has developed autonomic dysreflexia, what should the nurse assess FIRST as a possible cause of this condition? A. Skin break down B. Blood glucose C. Possible bladder irritant D. Last bowel movement
    6. The physician orders Nitropaste for a patient who has developed autonomic dysreflexia. Which finding would require the nurse to hold the ordered dose of Nitropaste and notify the physician? A. The patient’s blood pressure is 130/80. B. The patient reports a throbbing headache. C. The patient’s lower extremities are pale and cool. D. The patient states they took Sildenafil 12 hours ago.
    7. A patient is receiving treatment for a complete spinal cord injury at T4. As the nurse you know to educate the patient on the signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. What signs and symptoms will you educate the patient about? Select all that apply: A. Headache B. Low blood glucose C. Sweating D. Flushed below site of injury E. Pale and cool above site of injury F. Hypertension G. Slow heart rate
  1. Which tests below can be ordered to help the physician diagnose Guillain-Barré Syndrome? Select all that apply: A. Edrophonium Test B. Sweat Test C. Lumbar puncture D. Electromyography E. Nerve Conduction Studies
  2. You’re teaching a group of nursing students about Guillain-Barré Syndrome and how it can affect the autonomic nervous system. Which signs and symptoms verbalized by the students demonstrate they understood the autonomic involvement of this syndrome? Select all that apply: A. Altered body temperature regulation B. Inability to move facial muscles C. Cardiac dysrhythmias D. Orthostatic hypotension E. Bladder distension
  3. You’re about to send a patient for a lumbar puncture to help rule out Guillain-Barré Syndrome. Before sending the patient you will have the patient? A. Clean the back with antiseptic B. Drink contrast dye C. Void D. Wash their hair
  4. Your patient is back from having a lumbar puncture. Select all the correct nursing interventions for this patient? Select all that apply: A. Place the patient in lateral recumbent position. B. Keep the patient flat. C. Remind the patient to refrain from eating or drinking for 4 hours. D. Encourage the patient to consume liquids regularly.
  5. The patient’s lumbar puncture results are back. Which finding below correlates with Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A. high glucose with normal white blood cells B. high protein with normal white blood cells C. high protein with low white blood cells D. low protein with high white blood cells
  6. Neurons in the brain are tasked with handling and transmitting information. There are different types of neurons, such as excitatory and inhibitory. Excitatory neurons release the neurotransmitter _____________, while inhibitory neurons release the neurotransmitter ________________. A. GABA, glutamate B. Norepinephrine, GABA C. Glutamate, GABA D. Dopamine, glutamate
    1. You’re assessing your patient load for the patients who are at MOST risk for seizures. Select all the patients below that are at risk: A. A 32-year-old with a blood glucose of 20 mg/dL. B. A 63-year-old whose CT scan shows an ischemic stroke. C. A 72-year-old who is post opt day 5 from open heart surgery. D. A 16-year-old with bacterial meningitis. E. A 58-year-old experiencing ETOH withdrawal.
    2. A patient with a history of epilepsy is taking Phenytoin. The patient’s morning labs are back, and the patient’s Phenytoin level is 7 mcg/mL. Based on this finding, the nurse will? A. Assess the patient for a rash B. Initiate seizure precautions C. Hold the next dose of Phenytoin D. Continue to monitor the patient
    3. You’re educating a 25 - year-old female about possible triggers for seizures. Which statement requires you to re-educate the patient about the triggers? A. “I’m at risk for seizure activity during my menstrual cycle.” B. “I will limit my alcohol intake to 2 glasses of wine per day.” C. “It’s important I get plenty of sleep.” D. “I will be sure to stay hydrated, especially during hot weather.”
    4. True or False: A patient who is experiencing a tonic- clonic seizure is experiencing a focal (partial) seizure. Answer FALSE : A patient who is experiencing a tonic- clonic seizure is experiencing a GENERALIZED seizure. This type of seizure affects both sides of the brain.
    5. A 7-year-old male patient is being evaluated for seizures. While in the child’s room talking with the child’s parents, you notice that the child appears to be daydreaming. You time this event to be 10 seconds. After 10 seconds, the child appropriately responds and doesn’t recall the event. This is known as what type of seizure? A. Focal Impaired Awareness (complex partial) B. Atonic C. Tonic-clonic D. Absence
    6. Your patient has a history of epilepsy. While helping the patient to the restroom, the patient reports having this

feeling of déjà vu and seeing spots in their visual field. Your next nursing action is to? A. Continue assisting the patient to the restroom and let them sit down. B. Initiate the emergency response system. C. Lay the patient down on their side with a pillow underneath the head. D. Assess the patient’s medication history.

  1. Keeping the previous question in mind, the patient is now experiencing characteristics of a tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure started at 1402 and it is now 1408, and the patient is still experiencing a seizure. The nurse should? A. Continue to monitor the patient B. Suction the patient C. Initiate the emergency response system D. Restrain the patient to prevent further injury
  2. Your patient has entered the post ictus stage for seizures. The patient’s seizure presented with an aura followed by body stiffening and then recurrent jerking. The patient had incontinence and bleeding in the mouth from injury to the tongue. What is an expected finding in this stage based on the type of seizure this patient experienced? A. Crying and anxiety B. Immediate return to baseline behavior C. Sleepy, headache, and soreness D. Unconsciousness
  3. You’re developing discharge instructions to the parents of a child who experiences atonic seizures. What information below is important to include in the teaching? A. “This type of seizure is hard to detect because the child may appear like he or she is daydreaming.” B. “Be sure your child wears a helmet daily.” C. “It is common for the child to feel extremely tired after experiencing this type of seizure.” D. “Avoid high fat and low carbohydrate diets.”
  4. You’re assessing a patient who recently experienced a focal type seizure (partial seizure). As the nurse, you know that which statement by the patient indicates the patient may have experienced a focal impaired awareness (complex partial) seizure? A. “My friend reported that during the seizure I was staring off and rubbing my hands together, but I don’t remember doing this.” B. “I remember having vision changes, but it didn’t last long.” C. “I woke up on the floor with my mouth bleeding.” D. “After the seizure I was very sleepy, and I had a headache for several hours.”
    1. You have a patient who has a brain tumor and is at risk for seizures. In the patient’s plan of care you incorporate seizure precautions. Select below all the proper steps to take in initiating seizure precautions: A. Oxygen and suction at bedside B. Bed in highest position C. Remove all pillows from the patient’s head D. Have restraints on stand-by E. Padded bed rails F. Remove restrictive objects or clothing from patient’s body G. IV access
    2. You’re patient is scheduled for an EEG (electroencephalogram). As the nurse you will: A. Keep the patient nothing by mouth. B. Hold seizure medications until after the test. C. Allow the patient to have coffee, milk, and juice only. D. Wash the patient’s hair prior to the test. E. Administer a sedative prior to the test.
    3. A patient is taking Phenytoin for treatment of seizures. Which statement by the patient requires you to re-educate the patient about this medication? A. “Every morning I take this medication with a full glass of milk with my breakfast.” B. “I know it is important to have my drug levels checked regularly.” C. “I will report a skin rash immediately to my doctor.” D. “This medication can lower my body’s ability to clot and fight infection.”
    4. The nurse is ordered to administer Lorazepam to a patient experiencing status epilepticus. As a precautionary measure, the nurse will also have what reversal agent on standby? A. Narcan B. Flumazenil C. Calcium Chloride D. Idarucizumab
    5. A patient who is having a tonic-clonic seizure is prescribed Phenobarbital. During administration of this drug, it is important the nurse monitors for: A. Respiratory depression B. Hypertension C. Disseminated intravascular clotting D. Hypotension E. Fever

D. Amantadine

  1. A patient is receiving Interferon Beta for treatment of multiple sclerosis. As the nurse you will stress the importance of? A. Physical exercise to improve fatigue B. Low fat diet C. Hand hygiene and avoiding infection D. Reporting ideation of suicide
  2. Which medications below can help treat muscle spasms in a patient with multiple sclerosis? Select all that apply: A. Propranolol B. Isoniazid C. Baclofen D. Diazepam E. Modafinil
  3. As the nurse you know that Parkinson’s Disease tends to affect the _____________ of the midbrain, which leads to the depletion of the neurotransmitter ________________. A. red nucleus, acetylcholine B. leminisci, norepinephrine C. substantia nigra, dopamine D. tectum nigra, dopamine
  4. True or False: Parkinson’s Disease most commonly affects patients in young adulthood, and there is currently no cure for the disease. The answer is FALSE. Parkinson’s Disease most commonly affects patients in OLDER adulthood (60 or older), and there is currently no cure for the disease.
  5. You’re caring for a patient with Parkinson’s Disease that has tremors. Select the option that is INCORRECT about tremors experienced in this disease: A. The tremors are most likely to occur with purposeful movements. B. A common term used to describe the tremors in the hands and fingers is called “pill-rolling”. C. Tremors are one of the most common signs and symptoms in Parkinson’s Disease. D. Tremors in this disease can occur in the hands, fingers, arms, legs and even the lips and tongue.
  6. While assessing a patient with Parkinson’s Disease, you note the patient’s arms slightly jerk as you passively move them toward the patient’s body. This is known as: A. Lead Pipe Rigidity B. Cogwheel Rigidity C. Pronate Rigidity D. Flexor Rigidity
    1. A patient with Parkinson’s Disease has slow movements that affects their swallowing, facial expressions, and ability to coordinate movements. As the nurse you will document the patient has: A. Akinesia B. “Freeze up” tremors C. Bradykinesia D. Pill-rolling
    2. You’re providing free education to a local community group about the signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease. Select all the signs and symptoms a patient could experience with this disease: A. Increased Salivation B. Loss of smell C. Constipation D. Tremors with purposeful movement E. Shuffling of gait F. Freezing of extremities G. Euphoria H. Coordination issues
    3. You’re providing diet education to a patient with Parkinson’s Disease. Which statement below demonstrates the patient understood your teaching? Select all that apply: A. “I will limit foods high in fiber like fruits and vegetables in my diet.” B. “I will be sure to drink 2 Liter of fluid per day.” C. “It is very common for me to experience diarrhea with this disease.” D. “I will avoid taking Carbidopa/Levodopa with a protein rich meal.”
    4. A patient with Parkinson Disease is experiencing weight loss due to difficulty chewing and swallowing. Which meal option below is the best for this patient? A. Scrambled eggs with a side of cottage cheese B. Grilled cheese with apple slices C. Baked chicken with bacon slices D. Tacos with refried beans
    5. As the home health nurse you are helping a patient with Parkinson’s Disease get dressed. What item gathered by the patient to wear should NOT be worn? A. Velcro pants B. Pull over sweatshirt C. Non-slip socks D. Rubber sole shoes
    6. A spouse of a husband who has Parkinson’s Disease explains to you that her husband experiences episodes while walking where he freezes and can’t move. She asks what can be done to help with these types of episodes to prevent injury. Select all the options that are correct:

A. Have the husband try to change direction of movement by moving in the opposite direction when the freeze ups occur. B. Use a cane with a laser point while walking. C. Have the husband try to push through the freeze ups. D. Encourage the husband to consciously lift the legs while walking (as with marching).

  1. A patient is prescribed to take Carbidopa/Levodopa (Sinemet). As the nurse you know that which statement is incorrect about this medication: A. It can take up to 3 weeks for the patient to notice a decrease in signs and symptoms when beginning treatment with this medication. B. Body fluids can turn a dark color and stain clothes. C. This medication is most commonly prescribed with a vitamin B6 supplement. D. Carbidopa helps to prevent Levodopa from being broken down in the blood before it enters the brain. Hence, levodopa is able to enter the brain.
  2. You’re patient with Parkinson’s Disease has been taking Carbidopa/Levodopa for several years. The patient reports that his signs and symptoms actually become worse before the next dose of medication is due. As the nurse, you know what medication can be prescribed with this medication to help decrease this for happening? A. Anticholinergic (Benztropine) B. Dopamine agonists (Ropinirole) C. COMT Inhibitor (Entacapone) D: Beta blockers (Metoprolol)
  3. While providing discharge teaching to a patient prescribed Ropinirole (Requip), you make it priority to teach the patient about what side effect? A. Drowsiness B. Dry mouth C. Coughing D. Dark sweat or saliva
  4. A physician orders a patient to take Benztropine (Cogentin). The patient has never taken this medication before and is due to take the first dose at 1000. What statement by the patient requires you to hold the dose and notify the physician? A. “I forgot to tell the doctor I take eye drops for my glaucoma.” B. “I had a PET scan last week.” C. “I take aspirin once day.” D. “My hands are experiencing tremors at rest.”
    1. A patient is taking Rasagiline “Azilect” for treatment of Parkinson’s Disease. What foods do the patient want to limit in their diet? Select all that apply: A. Liver B. Aged Cheese C. Sweetbread D. Beer E. Fermented foods F. Shellfish
    2. A patient is admitted with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. The patient’s medication history includes vitamin D supplements and calcium. What type of stroke is this patient at MOST risk for? A. Ischemic thrombosis B. Ischemic embolism C. Hemorrhagic D. Ischemic stenosis
    3. Which patient below is at most risk for a hemorrhagic stroke? A. A 65 year old male patient with carotid stenosis. B. A 89 year old female with atherosclerosis. C. A 88 year old male with uncontrolled hypertension and a history of brain aneurysm repair 2 years ago. D. A 55 year old female with atrial flutter.
    4. You’re educating a patient about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Select all the options that are incorrect about this condition: A. TIAs are caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain. B. TIAs produce signs and symptoms that can last for several weeks to months. C. A TIAs is a warning sign that an impending stroke may occur. D. TIAs don’t require medical treatment.
    5. A patient who suffered a stroke one month ago is experiencing hearing problems along with issues learning and showing emotion. On the MRI what lobe in the brain do you expect to be affected? A. Frontal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal
    6. A patient’s MRI imaging shows damage to the cerebellum a week after the patient suffered a stroke. What assessment findings would correlate with this MRI finding? A. Vision problems B. Balance impairment C. Language difficulty