NYS EMT-Basic State Exam Actual Questions and Revised Answers 100% Guarantee Pass Score, Exams of Andragogy

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NYS EMT-Basic State Exam

Actual Questions and Revised Answers

100% Guarantee Pass Score

This exam features: 120 multiple-choice ques & Ans

1. The role of the ems provider is to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. Perform primary assessment b. Provide initial resuscitation c. Provide definitive diagnosis d. Package patients for transportation Ans: C.
2. As a part of infection control procedures, it is ESSENTIAL that the EMS provider: a. Dispose of all equipment used after each call b. Wash his/her hands after treating each patient c. Wash his/her clothes after each patient contact d. Avoid casual contact with any patients Ans: B.

3. Another name for the left lateral position is a. Semi-fowlers b. Trendelenburg c. Recovery position d. Dorsal recumbent Ans: C.
4. In what position should an unconscious overdose patient be transported to a hospital? a. On his/her back, with feet elevated b. On his/her side c. Seated, with head tilted back and legs elevated d. Facedown, with head elevated Ans: B.
5. A single EMS provider finds a non-breathing and pulseless victim of a motor vehicle accident lying face down in the road, and suspects that the victim has a spinal injury. The EMS provider should: a. Do nothing until help arrives b. Leave the victim in place and attempt to apply the principles of CPR c. Turn the victim's body as a unit and begin CPR d. Apply an extrication collar and attempt to ventilate Ans: C.

Ans: A.

9. An accident victim who is a minor has blood spurting from the brachial artery. The parents are not present. Which one of the following actions should the EMS provider take? a. Contact the receiving hospital by radio for permission to proceed with treatment b. Get permission from the police to proceed with treatment c. Take the child to the hospital but provide no treatment d. Presume that parental consent is implied and proceed with treatment Ans: D.
10. An EMS provider responds to a call and finds an 80- year-old female with no pulse or respirations. The patient has a history of terminal brain cancer. The family states that the last time she was seen alive was just 5 minutes prior to calling EMS. They also state that the patient has a DNR order in New York State, EMS personnel may accept which of the following DNR instruments as valid? a. Verbal request from family b. Written nonhospital DNR c. Written healthcare proxy d. Written living will Ans: B.

11. At the scene of a crime, the EMS provider should remember to: a. Remove the patient from the crime scene before beginning treatment b. Refrain from touching anything not associated with the care of the patient c. Wait until the police arrive before transporting the patient d. Document statements of bystanders regarding the nature of the crime Ans: B.
12. Which of the following is the term used to designate an agreement by a conscious, mentally competent adult patient to accept emergency care? a. Standard of care b. Informed consent c. Duty to act d. Implied consent Ans: B.
13. Providing care within the scope of practice would be considered to be in accordance with a. The sovereign immunity doctrine b. State law

a. Diaphragm b. Main-stem bronchus c. Pulmonary capillaries d. Pulmonary arteries Ans: C.

18. All of the following are part of the respiratory system EXCEPT the: a. Alveoli b. Esophagus c. Epiglottis d. Bronchi Ans: B.
19. The smooth glistening membranous in the body that surrounds each lung is called the? a. Pleura b. Diaphragm c. Mesentery d. Peritoneum Ans: A.
20. A correct statement concerning airway management of a patient who has a suspected spinal injury is that: a. The cord injury takes precedence over the airway; the patient can be venti- lated only if done without moving the cord b. The airway always takes precedence over the cord injury; the airway must be opened regardless of the

damage it might do to the cord c. There is no difference in management; in the presence of cord injury, the airway is opened in the usual way d. Advanced life support techniques must be employed to open the airway without moving the cord Ans: B.

21. If a supine patient has secretions or emesis that cannot be removed or easily suctioned the patient should be a. Decompressed using gentle pressure on the abdomen b. Log-rolled and the oropharynx should be cleared c. Continually suctioned until the airway is cleared d. Log-rolled and suctioned again Ans: B.
22. You are to the home of a patient who is on physician- prescribed low-concentration oxygen and who is not in acute respiratory distress. Which type of oxygen delivery device should you use? a. Non-rebreather mask b. Nasal cannula c. Simple face mask d. Flow-restricted oxygen-delivery device Ans: B.
23. When the diaphragm and rib muscles contract, the diaphragm moves downward and the ribs are raised, this phase of breathing is known as:

level of: a. Carbon dioxide b. Blood sugar c. Oxygen d. Carbon monoxide Ans: A.

27. Any physical examination of a patient should begin with: a. Inspection b. Manipulation c. Stabilization d. Palpation Ans: A.
28. In people whose skin is darkly pigmented, cyanosis is BEST seen by observing: a. Mucosal membranes b. Earlobes c. Scalp d. Face Ans: A.

29. After you have determined that the scene is safe. The FIRST step in caring for a patient is to: a. Check for a carotid pulse b. Open the airway c. Determine unresponsiveness d. Check for breathing Ans: C.
30. Which of the following arteries is the MOST RELIABLE for detecting a pulse in an unconscious adult a. Brachial b. Femoral c. Carotid d. Radial Ans: C.
31. A patient with acute respiratory distress requiring oxygen therapy is LEAST likely to exhibit a. A slow pulse rate b. Anxiety c. Nasal flaring d. Intercostal muscle retractions Ans: A.
32. A 65-year-old male was involved in a two-car motor vehicle crash. Upon examination he complains of chest pain when breathing and tenderness of the sternum. Your INITIAL care should include: a. Stabilizing the sternum

35. The overall purpose of the primary assessment is to: a. Identify and correct life threatening problems and set priorities b. Ensure that the airway is open and locate breathing problems c. Identify and treat major extremity injuries d. Identify minor problems and provide definitive treatment Ans: A.
36. In an unstable patient, the primary assessment should be repeated at least every a. 2 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes Ans: B.
37. The MOST RELIABLE early indicator used to assess a patients overall condition is the patients a. Ability to sense your touch b. Pupillary reaction c. Mental status d. Ability to move Ans: C.
38. A patient exhibits noisy breathing that resembles the sound of snoring. What is the probable cause of this

sound? a. Spasms of the larynx b. Fluid in the lungs c. Partial airway obstruction d. Spasms of the pharynx Ans: C.

39. In adults, the accepted normal limits for pulse rate at rest are: a. 50/ min to 90/ min b. 60/ min to 100/ min c. 70/ min to 110/ min d. 80/ min to 120/ min Ans: B.
40. All of the following are symptoms EXCEPT: a. Headache b. Weak pulse c. Chest pain d. Nausea Ans: B.
41. When taking a blood pressure by the palpation method a. Only the systolic pressure can be obtained

by the EMS provider Ans: D.

45. A stroke is sometimes referred to as a. A cerebrovascular accident b. Narcolepsy c. Epilepsy d. A cardiovascular accident Ans: A.
46. Which of the following usually follows a convulsion? a. Hypotension b. Hyperexcitability c. Return to normality d. Drowsiness Ans: D.
47. Using the Cincinnati Prehospital stroke Scale, the EMS provider can assess the possible stroke patient for facial droop, abnormal speech, and a. Leg strength b. Arm drift

c. Pupillary response d. Ataxia Ans: B.

48. The signs or symptoms of an allergic reaction included all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hives b. Difficulty breathing c. Low blood pressure d. High blood pressure Ans: D.
49. Which one of the following symptoms is not an early signal of anaphylaxis a. Itching b. Swelling of the eyelids c. Seizures d. Tightening to the chest Ans: C.
50. The MAIN purpose of insulin is to: a. Store reserve glucose in the body b. Allow transport of glucose from blood to cells c. Act as an energy source for muscular contracture d. Promote bone growth and change Ans: B.
51. Which of the following result(s) from hypoglycemia? a. Tremors caused by excessive glucose in the urine

b. Muscular cramps c. Pulmonary edema d. Congestive heart failure Ans: A.

55. An EMS provider is called to the home of a 75-year-old man who complains of crushing substernal chest pain, which began 1 hour ago while eating lunch. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets with no relief. The EMS provider should suspect: a. Angina pectoris b. Cardiogenic shock c. Congestive heart failure d. Myocardial infarction Ans: D.
56. The chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the lungs is the a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left atrium Ans: C.
57. In most cases, patients with cardiac-related chest pain complain of: a. Sharp pain that varies with breathing b. Pressure or heaviness that does not vary with breathing c. Pressure or pain referred to the abdomen

d. Sharp pain referred to the arms Ans: B.

58. A patient having chest pain due to a myocardial infarction experiences pain due to: a. Anxiety b. Edema c. Arrhythmias d. Hypoxia Ans: D.
59. The chamber of the heart that is the most muscular is the: a. Right atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right ventricle d. Left atrium Ans: B.
60. The blood vessel that transports blood from the capillaries of the lungs to the heart is referred to as the: a. Pulmonary artery b. Aorta