Download Mastering Veterinary Pharmacology: Your Essential Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Fin and more Exams Veterinary in PDF only on Docsity!
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
Distinguish between hormonal, endocrine, and reproductive drugs - ans Describe how drugs affect the nervous system - ansDrugs affect the nervous system by acting at the synaptic junctions to promote neurotransmitter's activity, mimic their actions, or block them from acting. Identify examples of respiratory drugs - ansExpectorants, mucolytics, antitussives, bronchodilators, decongestants List which drugs are used to relieve pain and inflammation - ansNSAIDs, Opioids, Antihistamines, muscle relaxers, steroids, nerve blocks Summarize the difference between ophthalmic and otic drugs - ans Compare and contrast cardiovascular and gastrointestinal drugs - ans Describe how antiparasitic drugs work - ansAntiparasitic drugs work by destroying parasites or inhibiting their growth. Most work by interfering with the parasite's nervous system to prevent them from moving. Discuss why replacement drugs are often necessary for animal health - ans Explain the veterinary technician's role in inventory control - anskeeping the staff informed regarding discontinued items, knowing the dates on which backordered items will be released from the vendor, packing up goods awaiting return to the vendor (e.g., expired items), rotating stock correctly, maintaining current prices on all products, organizing inventory for ease of location and counting, receiving and inspecting orders on arrival at the veterinary facility, and learning about new products. Define: Agonist - ansDrug that has affinity for a receptor/stimulates receptor into action Define: Contraindication - ansA reason not to use a drug in a particular situation Define: Efficacy - ansthe degree to which a drug produces its desired response. Define: Over-the-counter drug - ansOne that may be purchased without prescription from a veterinarian Define: Prescription Drug - ansOne that must be used under the supervision of a veterinarina Define: Receptor - ansa group of specialized molecules on or in a cell that bind with a drug to produce an effect Define: Therapeutic Index - ansexpresses the relationship between a drug's therapeutic and harmful effects Define: Withdrawl Time - ansAmount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and elimination of that drug from patients tissues or products Define: Veterinarian-client-patient relationship - ansRelationship that must exist between the vet, the patient, and the owner before prescription drugs can be dispensed. List 4 sources of drugs used in Vet Med - ansAnimal product, plant material, minerals, synthetic products What are 4 components of a drug regimen? - ansDose, route, frequency, and duration of administration. Discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship can be shown to exist - ans1.vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgments in relation to health of the animal.
- Vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with it's care. 3.Vet must be available for follow-up care of the animal Discuss the responsibilities of a vet tech in the administration of drug orders - ansTo carry out the vet's orders correctly. should read the drug label three times to ensure proper drug is being
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
administered and should take care to administer correct dose by correct route. Should be aware of the expected affects and potential adverse side effects and be able to monitor the patient. Describe the sequence of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion - ansDrug is absorbed (or placed directly) into the bloodstream, the drug may bind with plasma in the blood or may exist in free state, circulating blood distributes drug to capillary level where it leaves circulation and enters interstitial fluid. it bathes the cell and allows drug to bind to cell surface receptors or enter the cell. It then exits the cell and moves back into interstitial fluid, reenters circulation, and is transported to liver for metabolism. The metabolite is then transported to kidneys for excretion. List 11 possible routes for administering a drug to a patient. - ansOral, subcutaneous, intramuscular, intravenous, intraperitoneal, intraarterial, intracardiac, intramedullary, inhalation, topical, intradermal List some of the factors that influence drug absorption - ansMethod of absorption, pH of the drug and ionization status, absorptive surface area, blood supply to area, solubility of drug, dosage form, status of GI tract, and interactions with other drugs Most biotransformation occurs in the_____ - ansLiver Most drug excretion occurs via the ______ - ansKidneys Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with specific cellular_____ - ansReceptors The drug name chosen by the manufacturer and is exclusive property of that company is called - ansTrade/Proprietary Name What are the 6 items that must be included on drug label? - ansnames (generic and trade) concentration, quantity, name and address of manufacturer, control or lot number, expiration date What are three government agencies that regulate the development, approval, and use of animal health products? - ansFDA, EPA, USDA Why do many vet clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use? - ansProfit earned from selling products Describe the marketing of animal health products - ansPurchased from manufacturers, distributors, or generic mail order companies. May be sold only one label to graduate veterinarians and under another as over-the-counter all FDA-approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication entitled_____ - ansThe Green Book What is the purpose of FARAD? - ansProvides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of congress? - ansAnimal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA) Define Compounding - ansDiluting or combingin existing drugs What are potential dangers of residues in animal products - ansMay cause allergic reaction or neoplasia in people, may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria List 3 classes of drug interactions - ansPharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, and pharmaceutic Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both metabolized by the_____ - ansLiver
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
Why should drugs be given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration? - ansThe plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective List 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use - ansluer-lock, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter tip A tuberculin syringe holds up to _____mL of medication - ans A(n) ______ is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation - ansCounter irritant What type of syringe is divided into units rather than mls? - ansinsulin syringe A(n) _____ will usually separate after long periods of shelf life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose - anssuspension Which syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe?
- ansLuer-Lok tip All of the following are sites for IV administration in small animals except a. jugular vein b. carotid artery c. lateral saphenous vein d. phalic vein - ansb. carotid artery If an IV catheter is not used continuously it should be flushed with heparinized saline every ___ to ___ hours - ans8, Cerumen is a substance that is commonly found in what anatomic part of the body? - ansear Any patient receiving IV fluid therapy should be monitored every ___ to ___ minutes. - ans15, IV tubing should be changed after a ___ to ___ hour period. - ans48, 72 When an intramuscular injection is given in the pelvic limb of a dog or cat, the area near the ___ nerve should be avoided. - anssciatic Describe the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist - ansAn agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action and an antagonist combines with a receptor to block the action. Define: neurotransmitter - ansA neurotransmitter is a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity. The area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the_____ - ansThalamus Most CNS drugs act by _____ or _____ the effects of neurotransmitters. - ansInterrupting he generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors? - ansepinephrine and norepinephrine List the four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS. - ansmimicking neurotransmitters, interfering with neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents - ansControl vomiting, treat urinary retention, stimulate GI activity, treat glaucoma and to aid in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class? - ansCholinergic blocking agents
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock? - ansadrenergic (sympathomimetic) Propranolol is an example of which category of drug? - ansBeta Blocker What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects - ansBradycardia and hypotension can be antagonized by using atropine, respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression can be antagonized by using yohimbine Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog? - ansThiobarbiturates are fat soluble which means fat acts like a sponge to take barbiturate out of circulation and away from CNS. thin animals will not absorb as much in to fat tissues and more will remain in bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? - ansAnalgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, loss of blink reflex. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose - ansRespiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures List two narcotic antagonists - ansnaloxone and nalorphine Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? - ansBecause it tends to precipitate out of solution when stored you are assisting the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route? - ansDoxapram (Dopram) may be administered under tongue or into umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection. Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as Class III controlled substances? - ansSome pentobarbital agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. They are easily identified as euthanasia agents and have less potential for abuse All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering ______ activity in the brain. - ansNeurotransmitter Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause _____ at the injection site - ansBurning A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is_____ - ansPropofol An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is_____ - ansGABA A benzodiazepine that s used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is _____ - ansDiazepam An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for separation anxiety in dogs is_____ - ansClomicalm _____ is used to treat old-dog dementia - ansAnipryl The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. The ____ system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures. - ansendocrine The ___nervouse system is under voluntary control - ansSomatic the _____ is the fundamental unit of the nervous system - ansneuron
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine. - ansTreatment of insect bites and treatment of hives in horses What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names? - ans-amine List two potential uses for Dopram. - ansTreatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of respiration in newborn animals What structures constitute the urinary system? - ansKidney, ureters, bladder, urethra Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients. - ansRompun and ketaset Renal damage bay be categorized as _____, _____, or _____ - ansPrerenal, renal, postrenal. Explain how diuretics work - ansDiuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - ansPotassium (K) ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to _____ - ansAngiotensin II Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ___ uroliths. - ansStruvite The renal cortex produces ______; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative _____ in its production. - ansErythopoietin; decrease Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretics? - ansLoop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium Where is ADH secreted? - ansposterior pituitary gland The ureters ___ - ansOriginate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder Persistently high blood pressure is known as - ansHypertension Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid. - ansExtracellular Antidiuretic hormone is normally secreted by the _____ pituitary gland - ansPostererior What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? - ansPotassium Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of - ansuroliths _____ is a medical term for bloody urine - anshematuria What part of the kidney is responsible for the reabsorption, or the secretion, of certain substances? - ansTubules Patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function T/F - ansFalse Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of _____ - ansSodium Why is the heart considered to be two pumps functionally? - ansThe right atrium and right ventricle serve functionally as one pump for ejecting blood into the lungs and the left atrium and left ventricle pump blood to systemic circulation. Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membranes to form a _____ - ansSyncytium (interconnected mass) Depolarizatoin of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of _____ ions, a slower influx of _____ions and the outflow of _____ ions - ansSodium (Na+), Calcium (Ca2+) and potassium (K+) A relatively long ______________________ is important to cardiac cells to prevent a constant state of contraction from recycling impulses. - ansRefractory period
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
Define chronotropic and inotropic effects in the relation to the heart. - ansChronotropic refers to the rate of contraction where inotropic refers to force of contraction Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart. - ansPreload is volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole (amt of blood that must be pumped out) and afterload is the resistance in the arteries that the ventricle must overcome to pump blood.) List the four basic compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system - ansIncreasing heart rate, increasing stroke volume, increasing efficiency of heart muscle, heart enlargement List five objectives of treatment for heart failure. - ansControl rhythm disturbances, maintain or increase cardiac output, relieve fluid accumulations, increase the O2 of bood, and provide O2/sedatives. List four beneficial effects and one potential toxic effect of the use of the cardiac glycosides.
- ansBeneficial= improved cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic effect, decreased signs of dyspnea Toxic= vomiting. Catecholamines such as epinephrine are used in veterinary cardiology primarily for _____ - ansStimulation of cardiac contraction in cardiac arrest List five factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias - ansConditions that cause hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, increased levels of sensitivity to catecholamines, certain drugs such as digitalis, barbiturates, others, and cardiac trauma or disease. List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give an example of each. - ansClass IA- quinidine Class IB- lidocaine Class IC- flecainide Class II- propranolol Class III- bretylium Class IV- diltiazem List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as an arteriolar dilator, venodilator, or mixed. - ansHydralazine- arteriolar, nitroglycerin-venodilator, prozosin- combined, enalapril- combined Why is Lasix sometimes called a loop diuretic? - ansit inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loops of Henle The use of many diuretics can lead to a dangerous loss of which electrolyte ____ - ansPotassium List five ancillary methods of treatment for cardiovascular disease. - ansBronchodilation, oxygen therapy, sedation, asprin, centesis _____ is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, the slower influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions - ansDepolarization The amount of blood that the heart is capable of pumping her minute is called _____ - ansCardiac output _____ results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. - ansCongestive Heart Failure ACE causes the conversion of ______ to ______. - ansangiotensin I to angiotensin II
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
The CRTZ simulates vomiting when activated by - ansChemical substances (digitalis compounds, urea, ketone bodies, and others) List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics. - ansCentrally acting= Apomorphine and xylazine. Peripherally acting= syrup of ipecac and mustard Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called____ - ansantiemetics H2 Receptor antagonists promote the healing of GI ulcers by - ansReducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells by binding to H2 receptors List two H2 receptor antagonists. - anscimetidine, ranitidine What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns? - ansPeristalsis (wave of contraction), segmentation (mixing action) Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as - ansWitholding food for 12 to 24 hours List two species that do not vomit - ansrats and horses What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? - ansRetaining water osmotically in the gut. Cause softening of the stool. What is the active ingredient of Metamucil? - anspsyllium Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? - ansMy mimicking the effect pf acetylcholine A synthetic antibiotic/anti-inflammatory agent used to treat giardiasis and anaerobic bacterial infection in animals is called _____ - ansMetronidazole List four products that used as a dentifrice/oral cleansing agents - ansC.E.T, nolvadent, oral Dent, Oxydent what is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation? - ansPeristalsis-Wave on contraction that moves contents along Segmentation- intestinal contractions that mix contents Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility T/F - ansFalse About what percent of the stomach's contents do emetics usually remove? - ans80% How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers? - ansBy forming a paste-like barrier over the surface of gastric ulcers bismuth subsalicylate compounds should be used with caution in what species? - ansFelines List basic functions of the GI system. - ansIntake food and fluid into the body, absorption of nutrients and fluids, excretion of waste products. What species has no gallbladder? - ansEquines Ruminants remasticate food to facilitate the digestion process. T/F - ansTrue the crop in birds is used for _____ - ansfood storage List the parts of the small intestine - ansjejunum, ileum, duodenum Apomorphine is _____ - ansan emetic Cimetidine is _____ - ansH2 receptor antagonist _____ are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation - ansLaxatives. Mg sulfate is found in _____ - ansEpsom salts Viokase-V powder is ___- - ansa digestive enzyme and approved for use in dogs and cats
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
Describe the relationship between hormonal releasing factors, trophic hormones, and the hormones produced by specific tissues or glands. - ansReleasing factors (RF's) are messengers made by the hypothalamus in response to its detection of hormone levels in the blood. RFs send messages to the pituitary to stimulate this gland to manufacture trophic hormones. Trophic hormones, in turn, stimulate a specific tissue or gland. List the major endocrine glands - ansThe major endocrine glands are the pituitary, the thyroid, the ovaries, the testicles, the adrenals, and the pancreas. What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in vet met? - ansto correct a deficiency and to obtain a desired effect Endogenous hormones are those that are produced ___, whereas exogenous hormones come from ______ sources. - ansin the body, external Where is the pituitary gland located and what is its function? - ansThe base of the brain ventral to the hypothalamus. Function is to control the activity in other endocrine glands. Describe the difference between positive and negative feedback control mechanism in the endocrine system. - ansNegative feedback= hypothalamus senses high level of a certain hormone and reduces the amount of releasing facto (RF)for this hormone. Positive feedback is when it senses low level and release more RF to cause increase in trophic hormone. The release of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary is controlled through the ____ mechanism - ansneurohormonal reflex GnRH is classified as a ____ - ansgonadotropin Hormonal products with "gest" in their name are classified as _____ - ansProgestins List three potential uses of the prostaglandins in vet med - ansEstrus synchronization, induction of abortion, induction of estrus Human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to _____ women and individuals with _____ - ansPregnant; Asthma Before oxytocin can exert its effects on the uterus, the uterus must first be primed by ______ and _____ - ansEstrogen and progesterone What precautions should be taken before oxytocin is administered - ansReproductive tract should be examined for blockage or torsion and should be verified that cervix is dilated What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? - ansTriiodothyronine(T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4) List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism. - ansSoloxine and synthroid List the three major classes of insulin. - ansShort acting, intermediate acting, long acting. Which form of insulin is used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis? - ansRegular Which form(s) of insulin must be resuspended before administration? - ansNPH/PZI/Lente what are some signs of insulin overdose? - ansWeakness, ataxia, shaking, and seizures Growth promoters generally should not be used in animals intended for - ansBreeding purposes Why are anabolic steroids classified as controlled substances? - ansThe potential for abuse by human athletes Which insulin product should be shaken thoroughly prior to use? - ansVetsulin what precautions should be taken by pregnant women when Reu-Mate is administered. - ansWear gloves, avoid getting drug on skin Endometrium lines the ____- - ansuterus
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
________ has been developed for the treatment of otodectes spp. - ansAcarexx How many milligrams of tropicamide are in a 0.5% solution? - ans0.05 mg The skin consists of _____ layers and is part of the ____ system. - ansThree, integumentary Name seven functions of the skin. - ansProtection, temperature regulation, storage, immunoregulation, secretion, vitamin D production, and sensory perception Shampoos are most effective if left on the skin about _____ to _____ minutes before rinsing - ans5 to 10 Keratolytics and keratoplastics are known as ______ agents. - ansAntiseborrheic Name the four stages of wound healing - ans1. Inflammation
- Debridement
- Repair
- Maturation What does an astringent do to the skin? - ansdrying and cleansing properties Tissue irritation may be caused by counterirritants. T/F - ansTrue Patients are commonly presented for skin problems when in reality they may have a ______ illness. - ansSystemic Why are behavioral-type drugs used in treating skin illness? - ansTo keep the animal from excessive self-licking and /or mutilation. All patients presented for dermatologic problems have an underlying systemic illness. T/F - ansFalse The _____ is the largest organ in the body. - ansSkin Humans have multiple hairs per follicle, but animals have one hair per follicle. T/F - ansFalse Shampoos should be left on the animal's skin for 5 to 10 minutes before rinsing. T/F - ansTrue The debridement stage of wound healing usually begins to occur about ______ hour(s) after injury. - ans During the repair phase of wound healing, fibroblasts produce __________ and other connective tissue proteins. - ansCollagen The maturation phase marks the beginning of wound healing. T/F - ansFalse. It is the last stage _____ tissue is formed during healing of wounds of the soft tissue that consists of connective tissue cells and ingrown young vessels which ultimately form a scar. - ansGranulation Different types of bacteria can be distinguished with use of ____ stain. - ansGram Gram-Positive bacteria will stain what color? - ansblue/purple Gram-Negative bacteria will stain what color? - ansred/pink _____ is appored for use in lactating dairy animals. - ansNaxcel __ can cause staining of teeth in young animals - ansTetracyclines _____ should never be given intravenously to horses. - ansTetracycline Some aminoglycosides may be __-toxic and/or __-toxic. - ansOto; nephro Griseofulvin is used to treat - ansDermatophytosis A drug's _____ of activity is the range of bacteria affected by it's action. - ansspectrum Aerobes are bacteria that require oxygen to live T/F - ansTrue A fungicidal agent inhibits the growth of fungi T/F - ansFalse. it kills fungi
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
A bacteriostatic agent inhibits the growth of a bacteria T/F - ansTrue Penicillin-G benzathine is a long-acting antibiotic that is approved for use in dairy animals. T/F - ansFalse All of the following drugs are classified as penicillins except a. cephalexin b. amoxicillin c. ampicillin d. cloxacillin - ansCephalexin naxcel is not approved for use in lactating dairy animals T/F - ansFalse Clindamycin is classified as a(n) _____ - ansTetracycline Veterinarians commonly dispense aminoglycosides to patients with renal insufficiency T/F - ansFalse. they can cause nephrotoxicity. Enrofloxacin as a _______ - ansFluoroquinolone Amphotericin B may be used in the treatment of mycotic fungal infections T/F - ansTrue Name the 5 types of symbiotic relationships - ansPredator-prey, commensalism, mutualism, phoresis, parasitism What is parasitosis - ansoccurs when an animal is infected with parasites, and clinical signs can be observed What is parasitiasis - ansoccurs when an animal is infected with parasites, but no clinical signs can be observed what are ectoparasites? - ansparasites that live on the external surface of a host What are endoparasites? - ansParasites that live within the body of their host. An animal with endoparasites is said to be _____ and and animal with ectoparasites is said to be _____ - ansinfected, infested what is an anthemintic? - ansadministered to rid the body of endoparasites. _____ dips should never be used on cats. - ansOrganophosphate IGR is an acronym for - ansInsect growth regulator Praziquantel is a drug that is used to rid the body of __ - anstapeworms an example of _____ is the bacterium Moraxella bovis, the etiologic agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis, or pinkeye, that is mechanically carried from the eyes of one cow to those of another on the sticky footpads of the face fly Musca autumnalis - ansphoresis Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in the _______________ class. - ansavermectin All of the following are monthly heartworm preventives except a milbemycin axime b. selamectin c. Heartgard plus d. diethylcarbamazine - ansDiethylcarbamazine _____ is the most commonly used formamidine in vet met - ansAmitraz _____ is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines. - ansEmodepside/praziquantel (profender) An arsenic compound administered by deep IM injection in the lumbar region is _____. - ansMelasomine dihydrochloride. albendazole is the active ingredient found in - ansValbazen An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinesterase T/F - ansTrue
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
A local anesthetic such as lidocaine may be the drug of choice when an epidural is performed to replace a prolapsed uterus in a bovine. T/F - ansTrue List the four steps involve in the production of pain sensation. - ansTransduction, transmission, modulation, perception Define windup as it applies to pain production - ansCentral sensitization/hyperalgesia due to repeated stimulation of neurons of the spinothalamic tract Pain resulting from tissue injury is called __ pain - anspathologic Pain arising from abdominal or thoracic organs is called __ pain - ansvisceral List a class of drugs that would alter pain recognition and perception. - ansOpiods Pain control that utilizes a combination of drugs acting at different sites in the pain production pathways is called __ therapy - ansmultimodal Define: Hyperkalemia - ansexcess potassium in the blood intravascular fluid (plasma) makes up approximately _____ of body weight. - ans5% explain the concept of a balanced solution for fluid therapy - ansa solution is balanced if it resembles extracellular fluid in composition What are three units of measurement used for quantifying electrolytes in fluids. - ansmEq/L, mOsm/L, and g/100mL Therapeutic fluids with an osmolality of approximately ______ mOsm/L are isotonic. - ans Give examples of sensible and insensible fluid losses - anssensible losses- primarily represented in urine losses. insensible loses include fecal, sweat, and respiratory losses. Underestimation of the degree of dehydration is sometimes a problem in ____ animals. - ansObese one pound of fluid is equivalent to _____ milliliters, and 1 kg is equivalent to _____ milliliters - ans500, 1000 Calculate the fluid needed for a 44-lb dog that is 6% dehydrated and is losing 100ml of fluid daily through vomiting. - ans2520 mL What drip rate should be used to deliver (over a 24-hour period) the fluid for the dog in question 10 term-364(using a standard administration set)? - ans26 gtt/Min Describe how you would set up the first bag of fluids for a 44lb dog that is 6% dehydrated and is losing 100 ml of fluid daily through vomiting. - ansFirst, check the bag to ensure that the solution is clear. Inspect the container's insertion port cover to make sure that it is intact and then remove the cover, being careful not to contaminate it. Close the flow clamp on the administration set, and remove the cover from the set spike. Wipe the port with an alcohol swab, and insert the spike into the insertion port. Hang the bag and fill the administration set line, clearing all bubbles in the process. Close the flow clamp and attach the line adapter to the intravenous catheter using sterile technique. Open the flow clamp and adjust the flow rate. Tell how you would prepare 500ml of 5% dextrose from a 50% stock solution. - ansDraw 50 mL from the bottle of 50% dextrose solution and add it to 450 mL of water. What is the purpose of the lactate in lactated Ringer's solution? - ansLactate is added to help correct acidosis in a patient. Lactate is converted to bicarbonate (alkaline) by the liver. Describe the use an esophageal feeder. - ansAn esophageal feeder is used to provide oral electrolytes to neonatal calves. It consists of a tube (with a hollow ball on its end) attached to
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
a heavy plastic bag. Oral electrolytes are placed in the bag, and the tube is passed into the esophagus of the calf. The ball on the end of the tube prevents entry into the trachea. What type of fluid (tonicity) should not be given subcutaneously? - ansHypertonic Give an example of a balanced solution and an example of an unbalanced solution - ansLactated ringers- balanced Saline- unbalanced ______ is a determination of the osmotic pressure of a solution based on the relative number of solute particles in 1 kg of the solution - ansOsmolality the osmolality of dog and cat serum is approximately _____ mOsm/L - ans Commercial fluids with an osmolality of 300 mOsm/L are _____ - ansisotonic How often should an IV catheter be flushed? - ansevery 8 to 12 hours What is the longest time an IV catheter should remain in place before it is replaced? - ans hours What precaution should be observed when fluids are administered subcutaneously? - ansavoid hypertonic or irritating solutions. avoid placing so much fluid at once site that the skin is dissected from it's blood supply, causing a slough of tissue. What fluid can be used to bath tissues during surgery to prevent them from dyring out? - ansSaline (0.9% sodium chloride) Any product that contains the electrolyte _____ should be given by slow IV administration to prevent cardiac complications. - anscalcium Water represents _____% to _____% of the total body weight in adult animals. - ans50 to 70 Hyperkalemia is an excess of ___ in the blood. - ansK _______ is decreased body pH caused by excess hydrogen ions in the extracellular fluid - ansMetabolic acidosis All of the following may be signs of dehydration except a. dry mucous membranes b. otitisi externa c. reduced jugular distension d. tachycardia - ansotitis externa _____ are solutions containing electrolyte and nonelecrolytes substances that are capable of passing through cell membranes and therefore capable of entering all body fluid. - ansCrystalloids All of the following statements about physiologic saline are true, except it __________ a. is also called normal saline b. is also called isotonic saline. c. is used to correct a sodium deficiency d. should not be used during surgery to bathe tissues - ansshould not be used during surgery to bath tissues All of the following statements about colloids are true, except they _____ a. contain large molecular weight particles that are unable to cross cell membranes b. affect osmoles c. are unable to hold fluid in vascular space d. are able to hold fluid in the vascular space. - ansare unable to hold fluid in vascular space Scours is a medical term that is used to describe diarrhea in what species? - ansBovines
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
Where in the body is erythropoietin produced? - ansKidneys What drug may be used to treat the anemia associated with chronic renal failure? - ansEpogen (erythropoietin) _____ digest fibrin threats and other clotting products to cause clot lysis and the release of fibrin degradation products into the circulation. - ansPlasmin Which anticoagulant may be used to treat DIC? - ansHeparin why should heparin not be used as an anticoagulant when blood is collected for the performance of a differential count? - ansIt may distort white blood cells making identification difficult How does EDTA work as an anticoagulant? - ansIt chelates (binds with) calcium What are some potential adverse effects associated with the effects of antineoplastic drugs? - ansnaphylactic reactions, immunosuppression, vomiting, diarrhea, hair loss, cystitis, pain associated with administration, and tissue damage from extravasation On what dosage are most antineoplastic agents based? - ans Corticosteroids have a lympholytic action, which makes them useful for treating _____ - ansLymphoid neoplasia A substance with antitumor, antiviral, and immunoregulatory effects is _____ - ansinterferon Cardiomyopathy is a potential side effect of which antineoplastic agent? - ansDoxorubicin Erythrocytes are formed in the _____ in response to stimulation by erythropoietin. - ansBone Marrow The primary function of erythrocytes is to _____ - anscarry O2 to the tissues ______ are used to prevent or treat anemia. - ansHematinics All of the following are androgens except a. Winstrol-v b. Equipoise c. deca-durabolin d. regu-mate - ansRegu Mate The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation do not converge into a common pathway in the final steps of clot formation because the endothelial layer of blood vessels has the ability to regenerate itself. T/F - ansFalse A heparin flush solution may be prepared by diluting heparin in saline at a concentration of _____ - ans5 U/ml heparin test tubes have a ____ top - ansgreen Vitamin ____ is an antidote for warfarin or dicoumarol toxicity - ansK _____ is the anticoagulant of choice when a WBC differential is performed. - ansEDTA Fluorouracil is contraindicated in _____ because of adverse side effects. - ansfelines Immunizations should never take the place of regularly scheduled - ansRoutine checkups What six factors may determine an animal's response to immunization? - anshealth/age, type of vaccine administered, route of administration, concurrent incubation of infectious disease, exposure to an infectious disease before immunity is reached, dug therapy. What is an inactivated vaccine? - anshas organisms commonly treated by chemicals to kill the organism, but very little change occurs in the antigens that stimulate protective immunity. What is a live vaccine? - ansA live vaccine is prepared from live microorganisms or viruses. What is a toxoid? - ansa vaccine used in producing immunity to a toxin rather than to a bacterium or virus.
Guide to Success on the Penn Foster Final Exam -
Comprehensive Questions & Verified A+ Answers for
100% Certified Exam Study Guide 2025/
what is an antitoxin? - ansa specific antiserum aimed against a toxin that contains a concentration of antibodies extracted from blood plasma of a hyperimmunized, healthy animal (usually a horse). When a shipment of vaccine arrives at a veterinary facility, what should occur immediately? - ansContents should be unpacked and placed in refrigerator What is immunotherapy? - ansUsing drugs to stimulate the body's immune response to disease _____ is a complex carbohydrate derived from aloe vera? - ansacemannan Vaccines are all that is needed to implement a comprehensive health care plan for animals T/F - ansFalse! But some owners are that dumb... All of the following are important factors in a patients response to a vaccine except_____ a. health and age of patient b. type of vaccine given c. route of administration d. administering a medicated bath before giving the vaccine to clean the surface of the skin - ansD, obviously, what the f*ck? In the manufacture of ______ vaccines, organisms are treated most commonly by chemicals that kill the organisms, but very little change occurs in the antigens that stimulate protective immunity. - ansinactivated (dead) A ____ vaccine is prepared from live microorganisms or viruses. These organisms may be fully virulent or avirulent. Few vaccines of this origin are used. - ansLive In _____ vaccines, organisms undergo a process (attenuation) to lose their virulence so that, when introduced to the body via inoculation they cause an immune response. - ansmodified live A(n) ______ vaccine is a specific antiserum aimed at a toxin that contains a concentration of antibodies extracted from the blood serum or plasma of a hyperimmunized animal. (usually a horse) - ansantitoxin Most vaccines for small animals are most commonly administered by what route? - ansintramuscular and subcutaneous List the signs of Anaphylaxis except - ansVomiting, Salivation, dyspnea Bordetella bronchiseptica is a vaccine administered to - ansdogs, cats Borrelia burgdorferi is an example of a _____vaccine - ansRecombinant A 2 year old beagle has clinical signs of lead toxicity and a history to support the diagnosis. Which agent would be the drug of choice for treating this condition? - ansCalcium EDTA A client calls and says that she has been giving her cat Tylenol for a limp. Now the cat is breathing fast, its face is swollen, and it is not active. You should tell the client to _____ - ansBring the cat to the hospital to start treatment with acetylcysteine. Yohimbine HCL is a reversal agent for ____ - ansRompun Penicillamine should be administered_____ - anson an empty stomach Name four drugs that naloxone effectively reverses. - ansoxymorphone, torbugesic, talwin-V dn Nubain BAL has been administered to a 4-year-old Mixed-breed dog for arsenic poisoning. Which laboratory test should be monitored closely. - ansBUN Glycosaminoglycans occur naturally in what part(s) of the body? - ansarticular cartilage and connective tissue
