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The gyro will _______ if the rotor turns in the wrong direction. precess continuously To maintain the gyro in its axis, it must be capable of _______. precession This property of the gyroscope and that of revolving system of masses is implicit in a principle known as the _______. Law of Conservation of angular Momentum Gyroscopic inertia depends upon the: all of these Which statement is NOT correct regarding the gyro compass? its accuracy remains the same in all latitudes Which can be set while the vessel is heading magnetic east or west? fore and aft magnets A vessel magnetic compass indicates 086 degrees when heading magnetic east. What action would you take during compass adjustment? if the blue ends of the magnets are aft and the fore and aft tray is at the top, you should add some magnets When adjusting a compass with induced magnetism in vertical soft iron, which of the following corrects this coefficient of deviation? Flinder’s bar Which area of voyage planning that involves an operation carried out by the navigation officers which gathers relevant information benefiting the future stages of the passage plan. Appraisal This is an essential area of voyage planning that involves the operation carried out by the navigation officers such as highlighting the ‘NO GO’ areas, laying out the intended tracks. Planning This is an essential area of voyage planning which involves the formulation of the tactics which are intended to carry the plan through. Execution This is an essential phase in voyage planning which involves the construction of the finished voyage plan and the instigation of the plan revealing the programs of the vessel and the visual confirmation that the plan is being drawn to a conclusion. Monitoring A safe speed throughout the passage, bearing in mind the ship’s draft and the possibility of squat and reduction in under keel clearance is part of the __________ phase of voyage planning? Planning Ensuring that all relevant publications are on board and correct for the forthcoming voyage is part of the _________phase of voyage planning? Appraisal The projection of ETA’s towards critical points to allow a more detailed assessment of the heights and flow of tides is part of the ___________ phase of voyage planning? Execution
Bridge team management refers to _____. a concept that makes command and control of the ship on the master in order to effect a safe well-planned navigation. The state of knowing what is going on around the ship. situational awareness An effective bridge organization includes procedures, that: all of these problems are correct Appraisal is a part of the _______ of voyage planning preparation stage Execution of the voyage includes: I. Organization II. Monitoring III. Appraisal Both I and II Who among the following members of the bridge team is a conning officer when the ship is in pilotage waters? master Which of the 18 articles of the STCW Convention obligates parties to give full and complete effect to the convention? Article I Which of the following factors shall be among those taken into account by all vessels in determining safe speed? all of the these In bridge resource management, which of the following statements are examples of “hazardous thoughts” I. I can do it II. It won’t happen to me III. Why take chances IV. It’s not my job V. Don’t tell me what to do VI. We’re all in the same ship I, II, IV, V In authority and assertiveness, which of the following thoughts is correct if a master or pilot is considered to be of too high authority? I. total command expected II. lack communication skills III. I cannot delegate IV. Performance oriented V. needs to prove himself I, II, III, IV & V Which is NOT a specific step in short term strategy in bridge team management? I. leave the problem and do alternatives II. identify the problem III. build plans to deal with the problem IV. check the plans with the BTM members by an interactive briefing V. perform a summary briefing on the mutually agreed combined plans VI. monitor that the combined plan is followed I Which of the following is not an indication of error chain development? I. ambiguity II. distraction III. inadequacy and confusion IV. Communication breakdown V. proper conning or lookout VI. Procedural violation V When you turn on the fast time constant (differentiator) control of a radar it will ____. reduce clutter over the entire PPI by shortening the echoes The radar control that shortens all echoes on the display and reduces clutter caused by rain or snow is the ____. fast time constant (differentiator) The radar control used to reduce sea return at close ranges is the ____. sensitivity time control
You are scanning the radar screen for a buoy fitted with racon. How should this signal appear on the PPI display? Starting with a dash and extending radially outward from the target A ship’s aspect means? Own ship bearing of target ship In order to insure that the racon signal is visible on your 3 cm radar, the _____. radar should be stabilized, head up How can you detect a dangerous target from a relative motion display? The target is closing in with no bearing change What is the most used geographical presentation of target speed and course on a ARPA? Relative or true speed vectors What does manual acquisition mean? The operator must select and acquire each target manually. What is ARPA? Computerized radar plotting device What is the IMO minimum range requirement for ARPA? 3.6 and 12 NM. What is the IMO requirement for ARPA detection? No special requirement With regards to ARPA, what is the IMO requirement to acquisition? Acquisition can be manual or automatic With regards to ARPA, what are the IMO minimum continuously tracking requirements? 30 targets What is the IMO performance standard for the ARPA target history requirement? Four quality spaced history positions Comparing manual and automatic acquisition in ARPA, which is most sensitive? Automatic acquisition With regards to ARPA, what is the difference between a tracking gate and a tracking window? It is the same thing With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of digitizing the radar echoes? The ARPA tracking only works with digital signals With regards to ARPA, what is the purpose of the steady course filter? Provide stable target information With regards to ARPA, can a target reduction of speed activate the fast filter? Yes
With regards to ARPA, how many target parameters must be displayed in alpha numeric format? 6 Regarding IMO performance standards for ARPA, is it a requirement for simulation of own ship maneuver? Yes Is it an IMO requirement for the ARPA to provide warning on connected external equipment? Yes Is it an IMO requirement for an ARPA to be sea and ground stabilized? Yes What are the IMO requirements regarding separation of Radar and ARPA information? ARPA and radar information should be independently controlled Is it an IMO requirement for both visual and audible warnings on ARPA? yes With regards to ARPA, is there an IMO requirement to display data for more than one target simultaneously? No With regards to ARPA, why is raster scan display lock up so dangerous? The displayed information is no longer relevant What is dangerous with operating the ARPA in mixed mode over time? Forgetting that this actually is a mixed mode. What can you expect from the ARPA target tracking system in auto acquisition mode? Small and weak targets may not be acquired With regards to ARPA, does the line connecting the PAD or POS with target indicate target speed? N o With regards to ARPA, can a target course change deactivate the slow filter? No With regards to ARPA, what does the lost target warning tell? Target can no longer be plotted If you input gyro course to the ARPA, what can you expect? No problem With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing triangle apex pointing down? Target on collision With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of a flashing diamond? New target With regards to ARPA, what is the meaning of XXT at the bottom of the display? Acquisition area active To map a hemisphere in oceanography, a picture taken from the inside view is called: Photograph
Speed of light, denotes as C is derived by ________ subtracting wavelength from frequency of radiation If frequency is derived by dividing the speed of light by its frequency , what will be the frequency of a radio wave of 100 meter wavelength __ 3 megahertz It is the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry air _____________ mixing ratio A value of 12 grams of water vapor per one kilogram of dry air would entail a total mixing ratio of ______ 1012 grams When air contains all the water vapor it can hold at a given temperature and barometer pressure, the air is said to be ________ saturated When air is saturated its actual vapor pressure will equal its saturation a vapor pressure the air will then be at its ____ dew point temperature It is defined as the mass of water vapor contained in a unit volume and is expressed in grams per cubic meter which represents the actual amount of water vapor in air, is called _______ absolute humidity It is the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually in the air, to the amount of water vapor the air could hold, at a given temperature and pressure. It is the ratio of the “ actual vapor pressure” to the “saturated vapor pressure” ______ absolute humidity If a kilogram of air at constant pressure could hold 12 grams of water at a certain temperature, but contains only 9 grams at that temperature, it has a relative humidity of __________ 75 % The capacity of the air to hold moisture is , EXCEPT _________ increased with increasing temperature The surface circulation of the ocean is a direct result of the circulation of the: Hurricane The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between evaporation, precipitation and: atmospheric pressure The circulation of the Black Sea depends on the difference between river addition and: pressure, temperature The deep circulation of the Mediterranean depends on the density of the High-salinity Eastern water versus: lower salinity The density of the surface water in the Mediterranean is much greater than that in the: Atlantic Ocean Estuaries are embayment of the ocean that are diluted by run-off from the : land Estuaries may be vertically stratified in: Temperature
This increases the salinity in the Mediterranean. evaporation Biological activity in the sea tends to deplete the surface of the nutrients, but: enrich the deep water There are two methods by which the ocean currents can be measured, one is by: a fixed current meter gauge There are two methods by which ocean current can be measured, one is by: motion relative to the earth A simple but ingenuous method for measuring current flows of the ocean was developed by Carruther in 1967 which he calls after the leaning tower pisa The velocity of sound in sea water is about: 1.5 ft sec Sound velocity varies slightly with the pressure, temperature and: salinity Sound velocity varies slightly with the temperature, salinity and: pressure Sound velocity varies slightly with salinity, pressure and: altitude The sound velocity was measured based on: 1 atm pressure, 0 degree R and 5% ºº The distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, one is: a narrow peak about 10m above sea level The Distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface has two peak, is: a broader peak at about 2.5 km below sea level The natural division between the two distribution of elevations on the earth’s surface, that is, the minimum between the peaks: does not occur at ground level, but at a depth of about 1.5 km In general, the sound velocity increases with the: weight of the material A tsunami is generated by a sudden displacement at the sea floor. This disturbance sends out wave that travels with a speed of about: 1050 km hr in the open ocean A vessel discharging cargo at anchor observes an approaching thunderstorm. A flash of lightning is followed after 12 seconds by thunder. Six minutes later another flash of lightning is followed in 8 seconds by thunder. How much time does the vessel have to rig hatch tents or close hatches before the storm reaches her? 12 minutes You are observing an approaching thunderstorm from seaward while loading in port. When you saw a flash of lightning, it was followed after 14 seconds by thunder. How far is the thunderstorm from your position? 2.52 n.m.
If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the navigable semi circle or in the path of the cyclone, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind on port quarter altering course to starboard as wind veers If you are caught up by a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere, and you are in the dangerous semi circle, the evasive action to be done is ___________? place wind 1-4 points on port bow, altering course to port as the wind backs The area in low latitudes in which the trade winds of the Northern and Southern hemispheres converge is called _________? Intertropical Convergence Zone What do mid-channel marks indicate? Deep-water channel or fairway You are underway in a narrow channel and is being overtaken by a vessel astern. The overtaking vessel sounds a signal indicating her intention to pass on your starboard side. If such an action appears dangerous, you should sound ________________. five short rapid blasts Based on the Rules, a combined whistle system is regarded as a ______________. Separate whistle The construction of sound signal appliances, their performance, and their installation shall be to the satisfaction of the appropriate authority of the state where the vessel is ______. Registered Target indicates tug with tow showing her green light on your port bow, and close to your port bow the green light of another power driven vessel. What action should you make? Slacken speed or stop the vessel In an inconspicuous or semi-submerged vessels or objects being towed a white all-round light shall be visible at: 3 N.M. Which statement is TRUE concerning risk of collision? Assumption shall not be made on the basis of scanty radar information In determining the safe speed to comply with rule 6, which of the following factors shall be among those to take into account by all vessels? I. The maneuverability of the vessel with special reference to stopping distance and turning ability in the prevailing conditions. II. At night the presence of background lights such as from shore lights of from back scatter of her own lights. I and II In which of the following is the purpose of ship’s routing to improve the safety of navigation correct? I. In converging areas where the density of traffic is great II. In areas where the freedom of movement of shipping is inhibited by restricted sea-room, the existence of obstructions to navigation limited depths, or unfavorable meteorological conditions. I and II
This rule states that every vessel shall at all times maintain a proper look-out by sight and hearing as well as by all available means. Rule 5 What is the routeing measure comprising a designated area between the landmark boundary of a traffic separation scheme and the adjacent coast, not normally to be used by through traffic and where local special rules may apply? Inshore Traffic zone Rule 10 (d) prescribes that Inshore traffic zones shall not normally be used by through traffic which can safely use the appropriate traffic lanes within the adjacent separation schemes. However vessels of less than _________ meters in length and sailing vessels may in all circumstance use inshore traffic zones. 20 In Traffic Separation Scheme, a vessel shall normally join the lane at termination of the lane. When joining at either side, the vessel shall do so by ______________. Entering at small angle as to the general direction of the traffic as practicable How many seconds is the duration of a short blast on the ships whistle when used as a fog signal? 1 How many nautical miles is the audible range of the sound signal intensity of the whistle of a vessel of less than 20 meters in length as required by Annex III of the 1972 Rules of the Road? 0. Under the rules which situation is considered “special” circumstances? Two or more meeting vessel Example of a special circumstance? Three vessels in an approaching situation You observed a vessel with an additional light in vertical line with the stern light. Which statement is CORRECT? It is a power-driven towing vessel A vessel is termed engaged in fishing when ______________. using gear which restricts her maneuverability A power-driven engaged in towing is exempted by the Rules to display the required towing light when rendering assistance. High intensity intermittent or revolving lights Where the length of the two exceeds 200 meters, the towed vessel will exhibit ____________. diamond-shaped light where it can best be seen While heading North, a vessel crossed ahead of you showing her port side light. The bearing of the side light before it went out of view is 000 degree. What is the most probable course of this vessel at that time? 292.5 degrees A vessel is being propelled by her sail and by her engine. How is this vessel considered under the Rules? A power driven vessel
A vessel moving at 2 knots moves approximately _______ in one minute. 200 feet A 30-knot wind exerts the same force on an equal area as a _______ current. 1 knot The ship’s turning circle from deep water to shallow water is ______. smaller An average size ship’s turning circle is usually and slightly _______ when the ship turns to right than when she turns to the left. smaller Ships like VLCC’s turning circle to the right is usually ____ her turning circle to the left. nearly the same as If the speed of a ship is increased during a turn, the tactical diameter becomes (or remains) ______. smaller Your vessel is proceeding parallel to a bank. Her stern moves______. towards the bank A ship can be backed and filled in the ______ area when to the left. smallest You are proceeding through an open roadstead. Your vessel is an average-size, house aft tanker ship. If you back your ship, expect her to ______. headway from the wind while she has headway, back away from the wind when she has no headway Bow or aft thrusters are sometimes preferable to tugs because _______. it is always available The disadvantage of a bow thruster is ______. it has no effect on headway to slow down or hold a ship The following are a series of conditions that influences the maneuvering characteristics of the ship EXCEPT: size of the vessel This system has been used for many years, the fittings of these plates in way of bronze propellers and other immersed fittings is a common practice. sacrificial anode system The turning circle of ship is the path followed by the ____________. pivoting point The turning circle of a vessel making a turn of over 360° is the path followed by the _______. center of gravity In relation to the turning circle of the ship, the term “advance” means the distance ___________. gained in the direction of the original course and maximum when ship turned 90° The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course, when a turn of 180° has been completed, is called the ___________. Tactical diameter A vessel in shallow water might experience _________. squatting
The distance that a vessel travels from the time that the order to put engine full astern until the vessel is dead on the water is known as__________. head reach When a large merchant vessel enters shallow water at high speed the _____. bow will suck down farther than the stern The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is: one-third of the length of the vessel from the bow When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is _________. about one- quarter of the vessel’s length from the stern As a general rule for most large merchant vessels, squat effects what part of the vessel? stern When you enter shallow water, you would expect your rudder response to ____ be sluggish, and your speed to decrease A wedge of water building up between the bow and nearer bank forces the bow out and away describes _____. bank cushion The effect known as “bank cushion” acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw proceeding along in a narrow channel? it pulls the stern toward the bank The ship movement where the pivot point plays a part _____. rotational A ship under headway can make a smaller turning radius if the pivot point is ____. close to the bow When going ahead from dead in the water, the stern of a ship with a single right-handed propeller: turns to starboard A ship is said to have a positive directional stability when _____ she tends to steady up when the rudder turned to amidships position What is the cause of the increase of draft of a ship moving through the water? drop in water pressure around the ship’s hull In an emergency and the anchor is dropped while at full ahead, do not slack the cable as soon as the anchor holds. I. false II. true III. depends upon the size of the ship I only How will you turn a ship quickly in a following current in restricted water? by dragging one anchor and astern engine Your ship, a right-handed single screw is making a headway, when the ship is maneuvered to crash stop the tendency of the ship will _____. slow down her headway and turn to starboard
In anchoring, using the scope of 6, determine the number of shackles to be used if the depth of water is 35 meters? 7.5 shackles In anchoring, it is always best to approach the anchorage area ________. against the current Your ship is at anchor. What is the approximate area of rotation if your ship has a length of 200 meters, cable used is 6 shackles and depth of water is 35 meters? 347 meters radius If a ship is holed above the waterline, you should ______. all of these If a ship is holed or cracked on or near the waterline, you should ____. all of these Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning gasoline vapors on board a vessel? They are lighter than air and will settle in the highest part of the vessel Drains or outlets for drawing off fuel from a fuel tank should ___? be located a the lowest portion of the tank Should you discover a leak in the gasoline line to the engine, the best thing to do is ___? activate the CO2 system Outlets in fuel lines are ? Permitted for drawing fuel The purpose of the shut off valve at the gasoline tank operate from outside the tank space is to: control the amount of gasoline to the engine Which of the following devices is required in the fuel supply line at the engine? Flow meter The top of vents from gasoline tanks should terminate? inside cabins Gasoline fuel tanks vents should terminate ? in the engine compartment Why is it necessary to extend ventilators to the bilges? to keep them dry, and thus easier to clean The purpose of fuses in electric wiring is to **? Allow for cutting out branch circuits** Electric generators can be protected against overload? with switches The principal reason for mounting starting motors, generators and other spark producing devices as high above the bilges as practicable is to? Keep them dry when the bilges are full of water After machinery is put in motion, you should __? look at the machinery and see that it is running During fueling, all doors, hatches and ports __? to windward should be opened, the ones to leeward should be closed
Gasoline tanks should be filled __? to the top to expel all vapors from the tanks The Nozzle of a gasoline hose or can should be kept __? from making contact with the fill opening to guard against static spark Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning precautions during fueling operations? all engines, motor, fans, etc. should be shut down when fueling Before starting any diesel or gasoline engine, which of the following must be checked? flow of cooling water Prior to starting any enclosed engine, you should: check the flame arrester Where a mechanical exhaust ventilation system is used with gasoline engines, before starting the engine (s), the exhaust blower should be run a sufficient time to ____? warm up the exhaust blower motor Before starting a gasoline engine on a motorboat, you should make sure for safety that ? the gasoline tanks is full Before any machinery is put in operation, you should **? just turn the key and start up** Upon completion of fueling a gasoline driven vessel it is necessary to ___? keep ports, doors, windows and hatches closed A hydraulic Accumulator is designed to: act as a fluid reservoir When fueling has been completed? The fuel tank fill pipe should be left open to allow gasoline vapors to vent from the tank What is the function of an air receiver in the compressed air system? condenses moisture A wobbling tail shaft is an indication of ___? shallow water Where a propeller shaft passé through the hull, water is prevented from entering by means of a: Propeller boss A thrust block is designed to: absorb the shock of wave pressure at the bow What type of stern tube bearing has the least friction? lignum vitae What power source actuates a solenoid valve? air pressure Which of the following is an advantage of a steam turbine over a diesel for the main propulsion? faster response from ahead to astern
Suppose you are told to store ships lubricants for one year and you estimate you will consume 480 liters in that time. You have an opened drum of 180 liters on board. What quantity will you order? 24 pails x 20 liters During maneuvering periods with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors on the control setting of the compressors? one compressor on AUTO CONTROL, the other on MANUAL What is that force that tends to twist the material like the force on the shaft to twist it apart? torsional stress Kinetic energy is the energy a body has due to its ______. motion Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler for ______. alkalinity What do you call the instrument that measures the radial position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft? bridge gauge Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause ______. scale In which pipe line should you expect to find an illuminated sight glass (bull’s eye )? tank overflow piping What are the four processes in a refrigeration process? Compression/Condensation/Expansion/Evaporation What is the purpose of a dehydrator in a refrigeration system? to absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant In which machinery can you not add oil under running conditions? air compressors or refrigerant compressors If the cooling water temperature exceeds over its recommended value, what can happen? a less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls The temperature of the daily tank of 60 degrees C suggests which grade of Fuel in use? intermediate or heavy fuel oil In which part of the alternator is the electric power produced? by the stator What is the function of the Lube Oil Sump Tank? all of these What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil Tank? as collecting for dirty oil of main engine intended for purification The main as well as the emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is, as well: fed into monitored and supplied to the consumers
By what means is the power output of an alternator controlled? by the excitation current in the rotor The working principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportioned to _______. the output voltage as well as the output current of the alternator According to regulations on board ships, it is required to have pump redundancy. What is understood by this? all essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility In case the auxiliary seawater pump fails, with which pump shall you cool the condensers? with the main seawater pump(s ) Below are some capacities of seawater pumps of a vessel listed. Which pump is the FIRE AND BALLAST pump? 110/410 cubic meter/hour x 70/35 meters Following is a listing of water pumps on board. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore pump? 5 cubic meter/hour x 50 meters What liquid is used to clean a turbo charger? water If you find it difficult to obtain suction while pumping the bilge well, which action shall you take? all of these How does the change of flow direction in the filter helps in segregating water and dirt? due to centrifugal force A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank, how long would it take to empty it? 2 hours and 15 minutes In a 4 cycle engine, the intake valve begins to open while the piston is on the: suction stroke In a 4 cycle engine, the exhaust valve opens while the piston is on its ______. power stroke What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive Consumption of lube oil I, III and IV In four stroke cycle diesel engine, a four stroke of the piston is required to complete one cycle which must take place in regular order, and the second stroke indicates _______. compression of air What is the compression system of a refrigeration? it is the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion The last stroke of two-stroke cycle diesel engine is also called: power stroke
