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Human Anatomy and Physiology: Multiple Choice Questions and Answers, Exams of Animal Anatomy and Physiology

A series of multiple-choice questions covering fundamental concepts in human anatomy and physiology. It covers topics such as the levels of structural organization, body systems, basic chemistry, cell structure, tissues, and the integumentary system. The questions are designed to test understanding of key definitions, functions, and processes related to the human body. This resource can be valuable for students seeking to reinforce their knowledge and prepare for assessments.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Uploaded on 09/24/2024

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PART I:
I: THE HUMAN BODY
1. The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:
A) Anatomy
B) Physiology
C) Homeostasis
D) negative feedback
E) Irritability
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the
levels of structural organization of the human body:
a. chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal
level
b. chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal
level
c. cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal
level
d. cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal
level
e. cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ
level
3. Which of these structures is the most complex?
A. ORGAN
B. TISSUE
C. MOLECULE
D. ORGAN SYSTEM
E. CELL
4. The lymphatic system:
A. responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands
B. picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood
C. synthesizes vitamin D
D. produces heat
E. secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient
use (metabolism) by body cells
5. The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the:
A. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
B. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
C. REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
D. MUSCULAR SYSTEM
E. URINARY SYSTEM
6. The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:
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PART I:

I: THE HUMAN BODY

  1. The study of the function of the body and body parts is called: A) Anatomy B) Physiology C) Homeostasis D) negative feedback E) Irritability
  2. Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body: a. chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level b. chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level c. cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level d. cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level e. cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level
  3. Which of these structures is the most complex? A. ORGAN B. TISSUE C. MOLECULE D. ORGAN SYSTEM E. CELL
  4. The lymphatic system: A. responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands B. picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood C. synthesizes vitamin D D. produces heat E. secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells
  5. The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the: A. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM B. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM C. REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM D. MUSCULAR SYSTEM E. URINARY SYSTEM
  6. The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:

A. SKELETAL SYSTEM

B. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

C. REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

D. ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

E. URINARY SYSTEM

  1. Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides: A. integumentary system - movement B. nervous system - excretion C. muscular system - maintaining boundaries D. nervous system - responsiveness E. respiratory system - digestion
  2. Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system: A) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response B) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response C) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response D) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response E) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response
  3. In anatomical position: A) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing backward B) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward C) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward D) the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward E) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing forward
  4. Positive feedback systems: A) regulate heart and breathing rates B) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases C) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced D) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases E) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced II. BASIC CHEMISTRY
    1. Inactive energy is referred to as:

A) protons are positively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged B) protons are positively charged, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are neutral C) protons are negatively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged D) protons are negatively charged, electrons are positively charged, and neutrons are neutral E) protons are neutral, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are positively charged

  1. An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass is: A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 14 E) 20
  2. The atomic number of an atom reveals the number of: A) electrons in the atomic nucleus B) protons in the atomic nucleus C) protons plus neutrons D) protons plus electrons E) neutrons plus electrons
  3. The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms are the: A) Protons B) Neutrons C) electrons D) isotopes E) ions III. CELL & TISSUE
    1. The correct order of phases of the cell cycle is: A) prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase D) telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  4. The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell is: A) Interphase

B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) telophase

  1. A cell whose job is to detoxify harmful or poisonous substances such as alcohol would have many. A) Nuclei B) Peroxisomes C) Lysosomes D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) flagella
  2. Microvilli are apt to be found in cells that are specialized for: A) Contraction B) Protection C) Absorption D) Insulation E) division
  3. Which one of the following is NOT true about the cell membrane: A) it consists of two lipid layers B) its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol C) it contains proteins for specialized functions D) it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials E) it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily
  4. The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the cytoplasm is the: A) Chromatin B) Chromosomes C) Nucleolus D) nuclear membrane E) plasma membrane
  5. The tiny finger-like projections that increase the surface are of the cell for quicker absorption are called: A) Desmosomes B) gap junctions C) Inclusions D) Microvilli E) tight junctions
  6. The three major components of the cytoplasm are the: A) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions

D. Langerhans cells

  1. In a renowned dermatology conference, Dr. Simmons presents a case study of a patient with a genetic condition that hampers the skin’s natural renewal process, making the skin appear prematurely aged. Citing this case, Dr. Simmons postulates the importance of the skin’s regenerative capacity and asks the attendees to identify the specific layer in the skin where the majority of mitotic division takes place, facilitating the continuous renewal and repair of the epidermis. Which of the following is the correct layer? A. Stratum spinosum B. Stratum granulosum C. Stratum corneum D. Stratum basale
  2. At an international dermatology symposium, Dr. Alvarez presents a riveting case study involving a patient who showed heightened skin sensitivity to an array of commonly used cosmetic products. Upon examination, it was revealed that there was a significant alteration in a specific type of skin cell responsible for immune surveillance and recognizing allergens. Citing this clinical instance, Dr. Alvarez queries the audience regarding the specific skin cell that plays a pivotal role in helping the body recognize and remember allergens. Which cell type is he referring to? A. Cornified cells B. Fibroblasts C. Merkel cells D. Langerhans cells
  3. At a renowned international dermatology conference, Dr. Matheson presents a complex case involving a triathlete experiencing excessive perspiration during her training sessions. She mentioned that she felt as if she was “losing buckets of water” with minimal salt, which often led to rapid dehydration but without any significant electrolyte imbalance. Pivoting from the case, Dr. Matheson poses a challenging question to the audience: Which major skin gland is primarily responsible for producing a secretion predominantly composed of water, with only trace amounts of salts and electrolytes? A. Lachrymal glands B. Eccrine glands C. Sebaceous glands D. Ceruminous glands
  4. During a trichology seminar at a prestigious institution, Dr. Patel presented a curious case of a 28-year-old patient exhibiting sudden changes in hair texture and slowed hair growth after recovering from severe malnutrition. Drawing connections between nutrition, systemic health, and hair physiology, Dr. Patel then steers the discussion towards fundamental hair structures.

He poses a pertinent question: In the vast realm of hair growth dynamics, which specific structure is instrumental in birthing new hair cells at the foundational level of the hair follicle and remains pivotal in determining both hair growth rate and its texture? A. Hair Bulb B. Papilla C. Shaft D. Arrector pili

  1. During a dermatological seminar at a nursing college, Professor Sinclair presented a case study of a 35-year-old musician who, after a minor injury to his finger while playing the guitar, developed a severe infection. This case led to a broader discussion about the significance of nail structures and their role in safeguarding the finger from infectious agents. Professor Sinclair posed a challenging question to the class: Amid the intricate architecture of the nail, which distinct structure acts as a sentinel, diligently warding off bacteria and detritus, thereby averting their infiltration into the interspace between the nail plate and the adjacent skin? A. Lunula B. Nail bed C. Eponychium D. Onychodermal Band
  2. A 72-year-old patient with a history of chronic sun exposure presents to the dermatology clinic with a lesion on the right lateral aspect of his nose. The lesion has been gradually enlarging over the past 6 months. On examination, the lesion appears as a raised, pinkish bump with telangiectatic vessels on the surface. In some areas, the lesion displays a pearly, translucent appearance, resembling a nodule. Given the clinical characteristics and the most common epidemiological findings, which type of skin cancer might this patient most likely have, especially considering it is frequently encountered in clinical practice? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Dermatofibrosarcoma C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Merkel cell carcinoma
  3. Dr. Anderson is reviewing a biopsy from a patient with suspected dermatological pathology. The biopsy is from a region of skin where all five epidermal layers are present. In examining the sample, she uses a microscope to start her assessment from the deepest epidermal layer, progressing to the most superficial layer. This methodical sequence is essential to ensure accurate identification and diagnosis. In considering the layers of the epidermis, which of the following sequences correctly orders these layers from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer? A. Stratum spinosum, S.basale, S.lucidum, S.granulosum, S.corneum B. Stratum corneum, S.lucidum, S.basale, S.spinosum, S.granulosum C. Stratum basale, S.spinosum, S.granulosum, S.lucidum, S.corneum D. Stratum corneum, S.lucidum, S.granulosum, S.spinosum, S.basale

A. Synovial fluid B. Marrow C. Hydroxyapatite D. Proteoglycans

  1. Nurse Thompson is conducting a teaching session for a group of new nursing hires in the hematology department. To ensure their understanding of the bone marrow’s role in hematopoiesis, she asks them the following question: “Several statements here relate to red bone marrow’s characteristics. Identify which statement is NOT true.” A. Red marrow is the only site of blood formation in adults. B. Adults have more red marrow than children. C. In adults, it is found in the cancellous bone spaces found in flat bones. D. In children, it is located in the medullary cavity of the long bones.
  2. Nurse Davis is preparing an anatomy and physiology lecture for a group of first-year nursing students. As part of the skeletal system discussion, she presents a contrast between the bones of the limbs and other bones in the body. She poses the following question: “While most bones of the upper and lower limbs are categorized as long bones, how would you categorize the sacrum and facial bones?” A. Irregular bones B. Flat bones C. Short bones D. Sesamoid bones
  3. Emily, a pediatric nurse, is attending a weekly continuing education session on the growth and development of children. A specific topic discussed is the bone elongation process within the epiphyseal plate. Emily is provided with a list of processes and is asked to arrange them in the correct sequence they occur. Use your understanding of bone development to assist her. Arrange the following sequence of processes that occur during bone elongation within the epiphyseal plate:
    1. Hypertrophication
    2. Ossification
    3. Resting
    4. Calcification
  1. Proliferation A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 C. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 D. 4, 2, 3, 5, 1
  2. Jacob, an orthopedic nurse, is caring for a 7-year-old boy who fell from a tree. The X-ray technician mentioned a type of fracture where the bone bends and partially breaks, commonly seen in children due to their more flexible bone composition. Jacob recalls the specific term for this type of fracture from his nursing education. Which type of fracture is where the bone bends and partially breaks? A. Comminuted B. Greenstick C. Impacted D. Spiral
  3. Sophia, a nurse in the orthopedic unit, is reviewing joint types with a group of nursing students during their clinical rotation. She points to her thumb and asks the students about the type of joint found between the metatarsal of the thumb and the carpal bone called the trapezium. Using your knowledge of joints, identify the type of joint she’s referring to. The joint between the metatarsal and carpal (trapezium) of the thumb is an example of: A. Gliding joint B. Hinge joint C. Saddle joint D. Ball-and-socket joint
  4. A 45-year-old post-menopausal woman presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent muscle cramps and numbness in her fingers and toes. Upon further investigation, her serum calcium levels are found to be lower than the normal range. The physician explains to her about the role of osteoclasts and osteoblasts in maintaining blood calcium levels. He poses a question for her better understanding: “If osteoclasts remove calcium from the bone, how would this affect blood calcium levels? And conversely, if osteoblasts deposit calcium into the bone, how would this impact blood calcium levels?” A. Increase; Increase B. Decrease; Increase C. Decrease; Decrease D. Increase; Decrease

a recognized function of muscles?” A. Facilitate voluntary and involuntary movement B. Produce heat to maintain body temperature C. Absorb nutrients D. Maintain posture and stability

  1. Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction is: A) cardiac muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) skeletal muscle only D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle E) cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
  2. The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with very obvious striations is: A) cardiac muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) skeletal muscle only D) cardiac and smooth muscle E) cardiac and skeletal muscle
  3. The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the: A) Sarcolemma B) Sarcomere C) Myofilament D) Sarcoplasm E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
  4. Which of the following does not describe cardiac muscle tissue: A) Uninucleate B) Striations C) Involuntary D) rhythmic contractions E) attached to bones
  5. The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:

A) motor unit B) Sarcomere C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) cross bridge

  1. An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage is the: A) Sarcolemma B) Mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
  2. Acetylcholine is: A) an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane B) a source of energy for muscle contraction C) a component of thick myofilaments D) an oxygen-binding protein E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle
  3. Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the: A) Myofibrils B) motor unit C) thick filaments D) axon terminals of the motor neuron E) sarcolemma of the muscle cell
  1. The specialized cellular compartments within the cytosol of the cell are collectively called __________.
  2. The network of nuclear threads, composed of DNA and protein, that condense to form chromosomes during mitosis is called __________. ___ 16. simple cuboidal epithelium ___ 17. skeletal muscle tissue ___ 18. stratified squamous epithelium ___ 19. simple squamous epithelium ___ 20. cardiac muscle tissue ENUMERATION: 21-25) Five layers of epidermis (deepest to superficial)

26-30) Enumerate the ABCDE rule of melanoma.