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CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions with Answers latest 2025, Exams of Medicine

University of Liverpool Medicine

CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions with Answers latest 2025

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/03/2025

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CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions

with Answers latest 2025

These cards were created for my personal use, which are provided free of charge for

your use, so they may contain....

A: Errors (spelling, grammar, punctuation, or content)

B: Redundancy of questions

C: Funky formatting (IE: some symbols are not available/changed by Quizlet)

D: Or all of the above

- D: Or all of the above

Since they are provided free of charge, have patience and understanding for any and all

mistakes/errors. Being kind and polite about these mistakes will gain you great

knowledge; if you can't then just move on...no one wants to hear your complaints.

How do you write a fishbone of lab values?

-

Which of the following statements regarding breast cancer is accurate?

A: Random screening and mammography decreases risk.

B: The probability of developing breast cancer increases with age.

C: One in twenty women in the United States may develop breast cancer.

D: Women with cancer in any other organ have a decreased risk for cancer of the

breast.

- B: The probability of developing breast cancer increases with age.

Routine screening decreases the risk for late detection. One in three cancer diagnoses

in women is breast cancer. Cancer in one organ increases the risk of cancer diagnosis.

Aging, hormone changes, and familial cancer all increase a woman's risk of breast

cancer.

During the preoperative assessment, the perioperative nurse notes an elevated liver

enzyme level. The nurse will incorporate nursing actions to address which of the

following?

A: Risk for aspiration.

B: Risk for renal failure.

C: Risk for increased bleeding.

D: Risk for positioning injury.

- C: Risk for increased bleeding.

Elevated levels of Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT normal =7-56 units/L) are indicative

of hepatocellular injury, which may impact the ability of the liver to synthesize clotting

factors. AST is Aspartate Aminotransferase and normal lab values are 10-40 units/L.

Terminal cleaning of operative and procedural rooms should be done:

Partial preview of the text

Download CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions with Answers latest 2025 and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!

CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions

with Answers latest 2025

These cards were created for my personal use, which are provided free of charge for your use, so they may contain.... A: Errors (spelling, grammar, punctuation, or content) B: Redundancy of questions C: Funky formatting (IE: some symbols are not available/changed by Quizlet) D: Or all of the above

D: Or all of the above Since they are provided free of charge, have patience and understanding for any and all mistakes/errors. Being kind and polite about these mistakes will gain you great knowledge; if you can't then just move on...no one wants to hear your complaints. How do you write a fishbone of lab values?

Which of the following statements regarding breast cancer is accurate? A: Random screening and mammography decreases risk. B: The probability of developing breast cancer increases with age. C: One in twenty women in the United States may develop breast cancer. D: Women with cancer in any other organ have a decreased risk for cancer of the breast.

B: The probability of developing breast cancer increases with age. Routine screening decreases the risk for late detection. One in three cancer diagnoses in women is breast cancer. Cancer in one organ increases the risk of cancer diagnosis. Aging, hormone changes, and familial cancer all increase a woman's risk of breast cancer. During the preoperative assessment, the perioperative nurse notes an elevated liver enzyme level. The nurse will incorporate nursing actions to address which of the following? A: Risk for aspiration. B: Risk for renal failure. C: Risk for increased bleeding. D: Risk for positioning injury.
C: Risk for increased bleeding. Elevated levels of Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT normal =7-56 units/L) are indicative of hepatocellular injury, which may impact the ability of the liver to synthesize clotting factors. AST is Aspartate Aminotransferase and normal lab values are 10-40 units/L. Terminal cleaning of operative and procedural rooms should be done:

A: after every scheduled procedure. B: after cases involving ruptured bowel. C: only if the room has been used that day. D: When scheduled procedures are completed for the day

D: When scheduled procedures are completed for the day Unused rooms should be terminally cleaned every 24 hours during the work week. "Terminal cleaning and disinfection of the perioperative environment decrease the number of pathogens, dust, and debris this is created during the day." Scrubbed personal changing position within a sterile field should turn: A: back to back. B: front to back. C: with hands kept below the level of the waist. D: only if single-use gowns are being worn.
A: back to back. Scrubbed personal should move back to back (or face to face) in changing position. Hands should be kept above the level of the waist at all times. Changes in position should be based in principles to prevent contamination. Mr. J, a 75 year old male who was alert preoperatively, has had a transurethral resection if the prostate under spinal anesthetic. As he arrives in the post anesthesia care unit, he is disoriented and incoherent. Mr. J's condition is most likely a result of: A: Mr. J's reaction to pain stimuli. B: hyponatremia. C: hyperkalemia. D: Mr. J's age.
B: hyponatremia. During the TURP the patient's bladder is distended with a large amount of fluid. If the patient absorbs excess fluid systemically, a decrease in sodium may occur. The regulatory agency responsible for surveying facilities' compliance with Universal Protocol is: A: Institute of Medicine. B: The Joint Commission. C: National Quality Forum. D: Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
B: The Joint Commission. TJC was created to address safety and quality concerns. TJC creates National Patient Safety Goals which include the Universal Protocol. A patient has been intubated and is to be moved from the supine position on the transportation vehicle to the prone position on the OR bed, to ensure adequate ventilation, chest rolls must be placed: A: perpendicular to the patient's spine across the nipple line and the iliac crest. B: lengthwise from the acromioclavicular joint to the iliac crest. C: along the patient's lateral chest wall from the nipple line to the mid-thigh.

Low humidity increases the risk of electrostatic charge and potential fire. High humidity increases the risk for microbial growth and patient infection. A 56 year old patient is undergoing an incision and drainage (I&D) of the right knee and upper thigh after a motorcycle accident. A tourniquet is applied to the patient's upper thigh by the surgeon. Which of the following is the reason why a rubber bandage would not be used for exsanguinations of the patient's extremity? A: Open wounds do not require exsanguinations. B: Nerve damage may be too extensive. C: Infection is present in the extremity. D: Tourniquet pressures are adequate.

C: Infection is present in the extremity. Using an elastic bandage for exsanguination can cause infectious materials and any thrombus, or potential malignant cells to be forced into the torso. In these situations, elevation of the limb alone is preformed to create exsanguination. If the patient's arms are placed palm-side down during positioning, what structure is most commonly injured? A: Obturator nerve. B: Ulnar nerve. C: Brachial Plexus. D: Medial nerve.
B: Ulnar nerve. The main goal in protecting the ulnar nerve is to eliminate pressure on it. The patient's arms should be positioned on the arm boards with the palms up (supinated). The person having the ultimate responsibility for making decisions about the extent of examination of tissue removed during a breast biopsy with needle localization is the: A: surgeon. B: pathologist. C: radiologist. D: circulating nurse.
B: pathologist. Once the specimen is the care of the pathologist, they have the ultimate responsibility to determine if the parameters of the specimen qualify for a complete evaluation. The major source of contamination in the OR is: A: the patient. B: inadequate temperature, humidity, and ventilation controls. C: instruments. D: the surgical team.
D: the surgical team. In the OR, the surgical team is the most common source of transmission of infection, followed by contaminated instrumentation.

Which of the following temperature ranges are considered optimal temperatures conditions to reduce risk of unplanned hypothermia for patients in the OR? A: 60 OF to 65 OF (15.5 OC to 18.3 OF) B: 65 OF to 70 OF (18.3 OC to 21.1 OC) C: 70 OF to 75 OF (20.0 OC to 23.9 OC) D: 75 OF to 80 OF (22.2 OC to 24.4 OC)

C: 70 OF to 75 OF (20.0 OC to 23.9 OC) Controlling temperature and humidity levels help to maintain a safe patient care environment and are one facet of infection control strategies. Maintaining room temperatures to 73.4-78.8 degrees has shown the ability to maintain normathermia. SRP (2013) Unplanned perioperative hypothermia, V.F., P 379-380. According to Spaulding's Level of Sterility, items that come in contact with non-intact skin or mucous membranes are considered: A: critical B: peri-critical C: noncritical. D: semi critical.
D: semi critical. A minimum of high-level disinfection is required for semi critical items. Examples of semi critical items that may come in contact with mucous membranes and non-intact skin are colonoscopies, vaginal speculums, and respiratory therapy equipment. The procedure that is preformed to reduce gastric acid secretions is known as a: A: pyloromyotomy. B: gastrotomy. C: vagotomy. D: esophagomyotomy.
C: Vagotomy. By interrupting parasympathetic innervations, this procedure reduces gastric acid secretions. During an emergency appendectomy, a patient in the third trimester of pregnancy is positioned supine with a small roll under the right hip. The positioning is intended to prevent: A: Bladder distention. B: Hypertension C: Hypotension. D: Eclampsia.
C: Hypotension. The weight of the baby causes uterine displacement in the supine position. Placing a small roll under the right hip allows the ability to lift the uterus off of the mother's vena cava. Occlusion of the vena cava causes hypotension. The implementation of personal protective equipment, work practices, and engineering controls are utilized to minimize to potentially infectious agents is known as:

B: Metabolic acidosis, compensated. C: Respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated. D: Respiratory alkalosis, compensated.

B: Metabolic acidosis, compensated. A pH less than 7.35 is considered acidotic: a HCO3 value less than22 mEq/L reflects loss of bicarbonate. The respiratory system has compensated for the acidotic state by hyperventilating and lowering the Co2 level from its normal value of 35-45 mEq/L. During ophthalmic surgery, a retrobulbar block is administered to the patient. The perioperative nurse should understand that his involves injection of anesthesia behind which of the following areas of the eye? A: Lens. B: Globe. C: Anterior chamber. D: Retina.
B: Globe. A retrobulbar block is frequently used in ophthalmology surgeries. The injection is made behind the globe to block the ciliary ganglion and nerves. Midazolam (Versed) is contraindicated in patient with: A: impaired kidney function. B: narrow-angle glaucoma. C: increased intracranial pressure. D: severe asthma.
B: narrow-angle glaucoma. Midazolam is contraindicated in patients with narrow angle glaucoma or untreated open- angle glaucoma. The trade name for Midazolam is: A: Valium. B: Sublimaze (fentanyl citrate). C: Duramorph. D: Versed.
D: Versed. Midazolam, also known as Versed, is the most popular and most extensively used benzodiazepine. An OSHA-approved N-95 mask must be worn by susceptible personal when caring for a patient with: A: Clostridium difficile. B: Herpes simplex. C: Varicella (chicken pox). D: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
C: Varicella (chicken pox).

Susceptible persons caring for patients with varicella should wear respiratory protection. If the caregiver is immune to the disease, respiratory precautions are unnecessary. The other diseases are managed through contact precautions. The antibiotic of choice to treat gram negative bacilli in the GI tract for Salmonella and Shigella is: A: Ampicillin. B: Cephalosporin. C: Vancomycin. D: Tobramycin.

A: Ampicillin. Ampicillin—prophylaxis against gram-positive cocci such as Enterococcus faecalis and gram-negative bacilli such as Salmonella and Shigella. An important nursing consideration when administering the drug Flumazenil (romazicon) is that it: A: is an antagonist for Sublimaze (Fentanyl). B: is an agonist for Midazolam (Versed). C: is safe to use for patients with a diagnosis of epilepsy. D: has a shorter half-life than most benzodiazepine.
D: has a shorter half-life than most benzodiazepine. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist. Its use is contraindicated for patients on long-term use of benzodiazepines for life threatening conditions. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of re-sedation as the duration of action may be shorter than the benzodiazepine. Normal physiological changes in the geriatric patient mean that the perioperative nurse must implement interventions to: A: prevent pressure sores. B: assure hearing aids is removed prior to transfer to OR. C: position patient after induction to allow for maximum range of motion. D: withhold DNR orders during the surgical procedure.
A: prevent pressure sores. Dry skin and loss of elasticity and subcutaneous fat increases the risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Leave hearing assistive devices in place for as long as possible to aid communication. Depending on the situation, positioning the patient prior to anesthesia induction may be the best so that the patient can direct efforts in regard to pain and joint immobility. The patient has the right to maintain or suspend DNR orders. A standardized approach to hand-off communication is a requirement of the Joint Commission to: A: reduce the risk of error. B: increase collaboration between multidisciplinary teams. C: notify the post anesthesia care nurse of patient status. D: assist with lunch relief communications.
A: reduce the risk of error.

In an oxygen-rich environment the temperature and energy required for fuel to ignite is lower than that of medical air. An oxygen-enriched environment like that of head neck procedures may be present due to the presence of anesthesia gas. A 65 year old patient is in the pre-operative holding area. The patient's preoperative lab test results show several critical values. Which of the following actions should the circulating nurse complete first? A: As the laboratory to draw confirmatory lab tests. B: Inform the anesthesia provider of the lab values. C: Notify the charge nurse of your findings. D: Proceed with the schedule case.

B: Inform the anesthesia provider of the lab values. Critical lab values may increase the patient's operative risk. Operative risk is assessed by ASA classifications determined by the anesthesiologist. The anesthesiologist uses all patient assessment data to create an ASA score. Some postoperative risk factors for ileus include intra-abdominal infection, intraabdominal inflammation, retroperitoneal hemorrhage and: A: short surgical procedure. B: long surgical procedure. C: intestinal gasses. D: lack of intestinal gas.
B: long surgical procedure. Lengthy surgical procedures with intestinal manipulations and exposure to air can decrease the peristaltic of the intestine leading to potential ileus. In relation to transcultural needs of the patient, it is important to include _______ needs in the nursing assessment? A: medical B: activities of daily living C: pharmacological D: spiritual
D: spiritual Transcultural needs include spiritual, ethnic, and family patterns, Standard assessments of patient's needs involve physical, psychological, and any other health status. The best option for a patient needing long tern dialysis is the use of a: A: synthetic vascular graft B: human umbilical vein graft C: arteriovenous shunt D: bovine carotid artery
C: arteriovenous shunt Utilizing the patient's own vessel decreases the risk of infection from a foreign substance. The standard of care for long term venous access for dialysis is the patient's own vessels with the option of four different anastomoses types.

A preoperative nursing assessment should be conducted by a perioperative RN at what point? A: Prior to discharge. B: Before the surgery. C: In the surgeon's office. D: Before the surgical consent is signed.

B: Before the surgery. On the day of surgery the perioperative nurse should perform an assessment and verify the information obtained during the preadmission assessment and note any subsequent changes in health status, thus forming a baseline for the patient's health status. A nursing care plan should be based in the patient assessment and documented appropriately. The perioperative RN analyzes assessment data and formulates as nursing ____________. A: diagnoses. B: plan of care. C: Interventions. D: communications.
A: diagnoses. The nursing diagnosis from the basis for the perioperative nursing care plan which guides nursing care. The nursing diagnoses may be derived from the standardized language of the PNDS. A 48 year old male is scheduled for a sigmoid colostomy. He has a history of hypertension and paraplegia secondary to a back injury 25 years ago. Precautions for the perioperative nurse to consider when positioning this patient include: A: immobilization with a cervical collar and log roll the patient. B: Extend the arms 90 degree with the palms pronated. C: Avoiding the Trendelenburg position intraoperatively D: Adequate padding of pressure points.
D: Adequate padding of pressure points. A paraplegic patient body system mimics that of a patient who has undergone spinal anesthesia that results in a pain and sensory deficit. Positioning problems can occur due to blocked sensory inputs. The use of adequate positioning devices helps to prevent neurologic damage and helps to maintain skin integrity. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for developing intraoperative hypothermia? A: An 18-motnh old female scheduled for bilateral tympanostomies with insertion of ear tubes. B: A 26-year old male scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal herniorrhaphy. C: A 76-year old male scheduled for bilateral femoral-popiteal bypass. D: A 46-year old female scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy.
C: A 76-year old male scheduled for bilateral femoral-popiteal bypass. The risk for developing hypothermia is greater for older patients and those undergoing general or major regional anesthesia for longer than 1 hour.

During an acute infection, the WBC count is likely to be elevated. One parameter that may indicate a systemic infection is an elevated white blood cell count above 12,000/mm. The perioperative nurse can expect to implement what nursing interventions for a trauma patient hose hematocrit is 22%? A: Ensure a glucometer is in the OR. B: Obtain a blood specimen for a type and crossmatch. C: Request 2 units of O-positive blood from the blood bank. D: Set up the rapid infuser with sterile water for infection.

B: Obtain a blood specimen for a type and crossmatch. Consider a blood transfusion for hematocrit less than 24%. Sterile water should not be used as it will hemolysis the blood cells. A specimen should be sent as quickly as possible for a type and crossmatch. If there is not time to do a T&C, O-negative blood should be used. Which type of necrotizing fasciitis is the most common? A: Type I B: Type II C: Type III D: Type IV
B: Type II The most common type of necrotizing fasciitis is Type II which is related to infections by Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus. A patient may experience a phenomenon known as "tourniquet pain" with: A: reperfusion of ischemic tissue. B: initial inflation of tourniquet cuff. C: tourniquet inflation time between 30-60 minutes. D: shearing injury to tissue from moving cuff after placement.
C: tourniquet inflation time between 30-60 minutes. The patient should be assessed for pain use of a pneumatic tourniquet. Patient may experience an increase in heart rate and blood pressure related to pain after 30- minutes of inflation. A combination of Lactated Ringer's, Lidocaine, and epinephrine is routinely injected in fatty areas to liposuction to: A: minimize the change of infection. B: decrease fluid volume shift. C: prevent intraoperative hypothermia. D: increase the ease of removing adipose tissue.
B: decrease fluid volume shift. A medicated solution is typically injected into the fatty areas prior o removal because of concerns related to large fluid volume shifts.

A 55-year old patient with no risk factors is scheduled to have a total thyroidectomy. Prophylactic measures to decrease the incidence of deep vein thrombosis are: A: Low dose unfractionated heparin every 12 hours with low molecular weight heparin daily and intermittent pneumatic compression stocking. B: Low dose unfractionated heparin every 12 hours and intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. C: No specific heparin prophylaxis with early and aggressive ambulation. D: No specific heparin therapy and graded compression stocking.

A: Low dose unfractionated heparin every 12 hours with low molecular weight heparin daily and intermittent pneumatic compression stocking. Complications related to deep vein thrombosis is considered a never event by the CMS. Prevention of DVT is recommended utilizing heparin therapy to interfere with clot formation and compression stockings to help with blood flow for an immobilized patient during and after surgery. Which of the following is a potential intraoperative complication for a patient with hyperthyroidism? A: Thyroid storm. B: Hypotensive crisis. C: Hypokalemia. D: Hypercalcemia.
A: Thyroid storm. Thyroid storm is a potential fatal complication for patient with hyperthyroidism. Thyroid storm can be precipitated by a stressful event such as surgery. Which blood type is appropriate for emergency untyped/uncrossmatched transfusions? A: A negative. B: O negative. C: O positive. D: B negative.
B: O negative. Type O negative blood (universal donor) blood should be available in the event that a blood transfusion is needed before a type and crossmatch can be done. Effective discharge planning begins: A: prior to transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). B: before the admission of the patient to surgery. C: on admission to the OR suite. D: at the time procedure is scheduled.
B: before the admission of the patient to surgery. Effective discharge planning is a complex process involving multiple disciplines. The most through planning must begin prior to the admission of the patient to surgery. The ultimate responsibility for obtaining informed consent resides with the: A: surgeon. B: risk manager.

Nurses who are involved as witness to the signing of consent from attest only to the validity of the patient signature, time and date. A patient is undergoing a procedure using local anesthesia. The perioperative nurse should consider an allergic drug reaction if the patient's A: Pulse increases from 76 to 144. B: Temperature decreases from 37oC to 36.5oC C: Blood pressure increases from 100/60 to 120/72. D: Pulse oximetry reading decreases from 99% to 97%.

A: Pulse increased from 76-144. Tachycardia and increasing temperature are signs of an adverse reaction to local anesthetics. Difficulty is breathing would cause the pulse oximeter reading to decrease not increase. The risk for complications for bariatric surgery is greatest in patients with: A: Endocrine disease. B: Prader-Willi syndrome. C: Obstructive sleep apnea. D: A history of failed dietary therapy.
B: Prader-Willi syndrome. Complications related to bariatric surgery involving many of the same factors for most surgeries. Specifically bariatric surgery involves the ability of the patient to maintain dietary restrictions and requirements. Patients with Prader-Willi syndrome experience a constant hunger. A motor vehicle accident victim being treated for cardiac tamponade is likely to exhibit which of the following signs? A: Jugular vein distention. B: Bradycardia C: Widening pulse pressure. D: Hypertension.
A: Jugular vein distention. Signs and symptoms of pericardial tamponade include jugular vein distention, narrowing pulse pressure, and hypotension. An indication for a hydrocelectomy includes an abnormal accumulation of fluid within: A: spermatic cord B: vas deferens. C: tunica vaginalis. D: epididymis.
C: tunica vaginalis. A hydrocelectomy is the excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis to remove the enlarged fluid-filled sac. Providing explanations of monitoring and safety devices are most effective in addressing an adolescent's fear of:

A: separation from parents B: loss of privacy. C: death D: altered body image.

C: death The fear of death is most prevalent in the adolescent age group, and adolescents may find conversation related to safety reassuring. Separation anxiety is seen with toddlers and preschoolers. Concerns with altered body image and privacy will not be addressed though explanations related to monitoring and safety measures. A long-acting local anesthesia agent used for regional blocks is: A: chloroprocaine (Nesacaine). B: lidocaine (Xylocaine). C: bupivacaine (Marcaine). D: procaine (Novocaine).
C: bupivacaine (Marcaine). Both chloroprocaine and procaine have short duration (30-60 mins). Lidocaine has an intermediate duration (90 minutes). Bupivacaine's duration is 3-6 hours. For patients placed in the lateral position with the OR bed flexed and the kidney rest device elevated, the correct placement of the kidney rest is: A: underneath the patient's iliac crest. B: just below the patient's waist C: between the patient's twelfth rib and iliac crest. D: underneath the patient's femoral head.
C: between the patient's twelfth rib and iliac crest. When positioning the patient for the flank approach (lateral position), the tip of the 12th rib should lie on the kidney bar. With the bed flexed, the tip of the patient's iliac crest should be placed just below the break in the bed. The name of the clamp that is designed for hold bowel tissue and has opposing smooth blunt edges is: A: Allis B: Babcock C: Deaver D: Kocher
B: Babcock The Babcock has broad, flared ends with smooth tips and is used to atraumatically grip or encloses delicate structures such as bowel. An Allis has teeth. A Deaver is a retractor, not a clamp. A Kocher clamp is used for grasping dense, tough tissue with its large teeth. The most common surgical incision made for a hepatic resection is: A: right subcostal B: Upper transverses C: midline abdominal

An inhalation agent is a potent and volatile anesthetic gas that is used to assist with induction of anesthesia. Inhalation may be administered alone or in combination with other injectable medications that are used to maintain induction of anesthesia prior to and during a surgical procedure. The incision used for an open appendectomy is called: A: McBurney's B: Pfannenstiel C: Paramedian D: Quadrant oblique

A: McBurney's The McBurney's incision is located in the right lower quadrant and is primarily used for an appendectomy. The purpose of using padding material under the pneumatic tourniquet is to: A: Ease removal of the tourniquet after the completion of the surgical procedure B: prevent transfer of organisms from one patient to the next C: Make the cuff fit better D: Maintain skin integrity
D: Maintain skin integrity Wrinkle free and adequate padding has shown a decrease in skin complications in patients with tourniquet use. The most common cause of delayed wound healing is: A: immunocompromised status B: diabetes C: smoking D: a surgical site infection.
D: a surgical site infection. The most common cause of delayed wound healing in a surgical patient is surgical site infection. Which of the following positions and positioning devices are used for a patient having a vaginal hysterectomy and is associated with causing injury to the common peroneal nerves? A: Lithotomy position and the use of stirrups B: Supine position and the use of a shoulder brace C: Trendelenburg position and the use of a foot board D: Modified Fowler position and the use of a headrest.
A: Lithotomy position and the use of stirrups The common peroneal nerve curves laterally over the fibula. The utilization of stirrups for positioning increases the potential for injury to this nerves related to way the legs may rest against the stirrups post or rest within the knee cradle of various types of stirrups.

If hair removal from the surgical site is necessary, the nurse can help to maintain the risk for infection by making sure the surgical site is clipped A: Immediately before surgery B: The night before surgery C: 2 hours before surgery D: 1 hour before surgery.

A: Immediately before surgery Hair removal prior to surgery increases the risk of infection. The potential of breaking the skin barrier with shaving can be decreases with the use of an electric clipper. Only the amount of hair required to the incision should be removed. Sponges being discharged from the surgical field during surgery with a minimal amount of blood should be placed in: A: red biohazard bag B: standard trash bag C: a plastic lined container D: Commercial plastic sponges counter bags
D: Commercial plastic sponges counter bags Use of a sponge counter type bag for placement of sponges during the surgical procedure will assist with counting. This procedure decreases the risk for retained items during operative procedure. The amount of blood present does not negate the placement of the sponges for counting. When moving heavy equipment the nurse should use proper body mechanics. An example of proper body mechanics techniques would be to: A: roll equipment B: Ask two other nurses to help move the equipment C: push the equipment instead of pulling the equipment. D: Make sure the equipment's wheel are unlocked prior to moving
C: push the equipment instead of pulling the equipment. Pushing decreases strain on the low back muscles. Pulling increases muscle strain. The other answers do not refer specifically to body mechanics techniques. An intraoperative autologous blood salvage device may be used: A: for a patient undergoing an emergency Caesarean section for abruptio placentae B: during resection of intact malignant tumors. C: in conjunction with the use of microfibrillar collagen (Avitene) D: in patients with sepsis
B: during resection of intact malignant tumors. Intraoperative blood salvage should not be used in conjunction with collagen hemostatic agents, which may not wash out of salvaged blood. Blood contaminated with amniotic fluid or know systemic infections should not be re-infused. If a malignant tumor can be resected intact, patient with cancer may benefit from autotransfusion. OR personal should never move an unconscious patient without checking with: A: the surgeon

CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions with Answers latest 2025, Exams of Medicine

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CNOR Flash Cards set 1, 129 Questions

with Answers latest 2025