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B : A patient' s pain may be caused by activities of daily living that subject the body to repetitive stresses. Backpacks that are heavy and worn on one shoulder can overload the patient' s shoulders. Students should be instructed to use both shoulder straps while wearing backpacks, avoiding carrying weight over one shoulder. ✔ A female basketball player reports to your university's athletic training clinic complaining of right superior shoulder pain she has been experiencing for approximately 5 days. She reports no history of shoulder trauma or changes in training or conditioning load or intensity. Which of the following questions can best assist you in determining the potential cause of this patient's pain? A. "You look tired; have you been spending a lot of time on your laptop?" B. "That's a nice-looking and large new messenger style book bag; do you carry it on your right or left shoulder?" C. "I know you commute to campus; do you have a lumbar support roll in your car seat?" D. "When sitting in class, do you have difficulty seeing the projection screen or blackboard?" A: Herpes simplex eruptions can be triggered by illness, external stresses, internal stresses, fatigue, overexposure to sunlight, menstruation, and physical trauma. ✔ A n athlete with repeated herpes simplex eruptions should be counseled to avoid which of the following potential outbreak triggers? A. Fatigue, psychological stress, and sunlight exposure B. Overexposure to the sun, decreased body fat percentage, and sharing water bottles C. Sexual activity, contact with others, and dehydration D. Contact with others, fatigue, and a high carbohydrate diet E. Poor nutrition, overexposure to the sun, and sexual activity C: In overhead athletes, the mechanisms of a superior labral anterior posterior (SLAP) lesion are associated with repetitive overhead activities. During overhead motions the tensile forces on the labrum from the biceps during the deceleration phase may result in a tear of the labrum ✔ A baseball pitcher presents with unilateral shoulder pain he describes as deep within the joint as well as intermittent bicipital groove and biceps tendon tenderness. The athlete also reports a history of his involved shoulder popping, clicking, and catching with certain motions. As he is a baseball pitcher, you are concerned he may have sustained a superior labral anterior-posterior (SLAP) lesion. To apply evidence based practice to the examination of this patient, what information from the National Athletic Trainers' Association (NATA) position statement on evaluation, management, and
outcomes of and return-to-play criteria for overhead athletes with SLAP injuries should you consider? A. Bicipital groove or biceps tendon tenderness is diagnostic of a SLAP lesion. B. A history of popping, clicking, or catching is diagnostic of a SLAP lesion. C. Mechanisms of injury for a SLAP lesion can include repetitive overhead activities, especially activities requiring shoulder abduction and end-range external rotation, that impart tensile, eccentric, or torsional forces on the biceps-labral complex. D. Shoulder pain described as deep within the anterior superior glenohumeral joint is not diagnostic of a SLAP lesion. E: Sartorius, gracilis, and semimembranosus muscles make up the pes anserine muscle group and insert on the medial aspect of the tibia through a common tendon ✔ Which of the following groups of muscles insert into the medial aspect of the tibia just distal to the medial condyle? A. Vastus medialis, gracilis, and semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus, sartorius, and vastus medialis C. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus D. Sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus E. Sartorius, gracilis, and semimembranosus C: The carpal tunnel is oriented within the carpal bones. The trapezium is the most medial bone in the carpal distal row, and its prominence can be palpated through the hypothenar eminence. The pisiform is also found and palpated on the medial portion of the wrist. The carpal tunnel is defi ned laterally by the tubercle of the navicular and the hook of the hamate ✔ Which four palpable bony prominences define the carpal tunnel? A. Radial styloid, navicular, ulnar styloid, and hook of the hamate B. Radial styloid, base of the first metacarpal, base of the fifth metacarpal, and ulnar styloid C. Pisiform, tubercle of the navicular, hook of the hamate, and tubercle of the trapezium D. Tubercle of the navicular, lunate, pisiform, and ulnar styloid E. Lister' s tubercle, tubercle of the trapezium, capitate, and base of the fifth metacarpal E: These ligaments assist in resisting varus stresses placed on the elbow as well as maintaining congruence between the articulating surfaces of the humerus and radius ✔ Which ligaments comprise the lateral ligaments of the elbow? A. Radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament, anterior oblique band, posterior oblique band B. Transverse oblique band, annular ligament, accessory collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament C. Radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament, accessory collateral ligament, anterior oblique band D. Anterior oblique band, posterior oblique band, transverse oblique band, annular ligament E. Annular ligament, accessory collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament
C: This athlete has sustained a traction force to the brachial plexus, stretching the left side cervical nerve roots. ✔ During a match a water polo player sustains an aggressive tackle, forcing his neck into lateral right side flexion and depressing his left shoulder. The player immediately retreats to the side of the pool complaining of radiating and "burning" pain. Based on the mechanism of injury and initial complaint, what other sign or symptom is this athlete likely to report? A. Severe neck pain B. Bilateral paresthesia C. Decreased strength of left shoulder and arm muscles that are innervated by the involved nerves D. Diminished sensory ability of right side dermatomes of the involved cervical nerves D: Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve. Visual acuity is assessed testing vision with tools such as the Snellen eye chart ✔ Which of the following tests assesses cranial nerve II? A. Lateral and vertical gaze B. Double simultaneous stimulation of the trigeminal nerve C. Symmetric smile D. Visual acuity E. Pupil reaction to light B: Shear forces create loads that are equal, but not directly opposite, resulting in forces parallel to each other. Once the forces exceed the tissue strength, pathologies such as abrasions, blisters, and ligament tears may result. ✔ Which of the following injuries result from a shearing force mechanism? A. Ligament tears, spiral fractures, and lacerations B. Ligament tears, blisters, and abrasions C. Blisters, comminuted fractures, and contusions D. Spiral fractures, ligament tears, and blisters E. Comminuted fractures, tendon injuries, and contusions D: The athlete ' s inability to dorsifl ex and invert his ankle suggests trauma to the anterior tibialis muscle. This muscle is located in the anterior compartment. The integrity of the anterior tibial artery should be assessed ✔ A soccer player has sustained a traumatic blow to the lower leg in the absence of a shin guard. He is unable to dorsiflex and invert the ankle. Which of the following conclusions would you make? A. The player has sustained an injury to the lateral compartment; integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed. B. The player has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment; integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed. C. The player has sustained an injury to the superficial posterior compartment; integrity of the posterior tibial artery should be assessed. D. The player has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment; integrity of the anterior tibial artery should be assessed.
E. The player has sustained an injury to the superficial posterior compartment; integrity of the dorsalis pedis artery should be assessed C: Tillaux ' s fracture is a type III Salter-Harris fracture, typically caused by abduction and external rotation of the foot. This mechanism is also typical for an anterior tibiofi bular ligament tear. When the anterior tibiofi bular ligament does not tear, this typically results in an avulsion fracture of the anterior tibial tubercle. ✔ A 14-year-old skateboarder falls while performing a trick and externally rotates his foot. The anterior tibiofibular ligament is intact, but you suspect he may have sustained a fracture. Which fracture is most likely based on this information? A. Salter-Harris V fracture of the distal tibia B. Talar dome fracture C. Tillaux ' s fracture D. Fibular avulsion fracture E. Jones' fracture B: An exostosis, growth of extraneous bone, can result from repetitive stress or from irregular forces to the bone ✔ What causes the development of an exostosis? A. Tearing away of a ligament or tendon' s bony attachment B. Repetitive stress placed on a bone or bony insertion of a tendon C. Normal forces applied to weak bones D. Extensive joint and bone immobilization C: Pes planus is commonly known as fl at feet. When the medial longitudinal arch fl attens, calcaneal valgus occurs as the rearfoot everts or moves laterally ✔ Which of the following calcaneal alignments is most commonly observed in patients with pes planus? A. Calcaneal varus B. Calcaneal inversion C. Calcaneal valgus D. Calcaneal pronation E. Calcaneal supination C: Scoliosis is observed during erect posture and disappears during forward trunk fl exion. Functional scoliosis is caused from a muscle imbalance or a leg-length discrepancy. Therefore, the curvature of the spine in the frontal plane would not be present during forward trunk fl exion due to the dynamic motion required and the lack of correlation with frontal plane abnormalities. The curve would be present in erect posture because the leg-length discrepancy or muscle imbalance would affect the symmetry of the spine ✔ Which observation would lead you to believe an athlete has functional as opposed to structural scoliosis? A. Scoliosis is observed during erect posture and during forward trunk flexion. B. Scoliosis is observed during forward trunk flexion and disappears during erect posture.
E. With the glenoid fossa angled 10° from the frontal plane and the humeral head abducted 10 C: The four muscles acting on the shoulder girdle during the initial phase of throwing include the serratus anterior, which brings the scapula from retraction to protraction; the subscapularis, which internally rotates the humerus; the anterior deltoid, which forward fl exes and internally rotates the humerus; and the pectoralis major, which also forward fl exes and internally rotates the humerus. ✔ In the initial phase of throwing a ball, as the shoulder girdle and arm move from a posterior retracted position to a forward, internally rotated position, what are the primary muscles responsible for moving the scapula and the arm forward? A. Subscapularis, anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, and serratus anterior B. Supraspinatus, teres major, rhomboids, and pectoralis major C. Serratus anterior, subscapularis, anterior deltoid, and pectoralis major D. Serratus anterior, upper trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis major E. Subscapularis, upper trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps C: Trigger points are hypersensitive knots in muscle tissue that are painful and sensitive to touch. Trigger points develop when postural muscles, muscles that primarily function to support the body against gravity, are overactivated and shortened in response to stress and strain ✔ A member of the rifle team reports to your athletic training facility complaining of posterior scapular and thoracic muscle pain. On review of his medical records, you note he has been treated for muscular trigger points in the postural muscles where he is reporting pain. What is the potential cause of his trigger point development? A. The postural muscles become inhibited in response to stress or strain. B. The postural muscles become weakened in response to stress or strain. C. The postural muscles become overactivated and tightened or shortened in response to stress or strain. D. The postural muscles become actively insufficient in response to stress or strain. D: Due to the shortened position, the cross-bridges overlap and are unable to create maximum tension and mobility, whereas stability remains uncompromised. ✔ The ability of a muscle to develop tension is dependent on the length of the muscle, which impacts the positioning of the actin and myosin cross-bridges. What impact will a shortened muscle have on its ability to provide mobility and stability? A. Passive insufficiency will occur, and the muscle will provide efficient mobility and inefficient stability. B. Reciprocal inhibition will occur, and the muscle will provide efficient mobility and efficient stability. C. Muscular imbalance will occur, and the muscle will provide inefficient mobility and inefficient stability. D. Active insufficiency will occur, and the muscle will provide inefficient mobility and efficient stability
B: The patient ' s chief complaint, the reason a patient is seeking healthcare, can be described by gathering information regarding the location of the discomfort, quality or quantity of symptoms, frequency of symptoms, factors that aggravate or alleviate symptoms, and onset and duration of symptoms ✔ When conducting a medical history, which question can best assist you in ascertaining information regarding the patient' s chief complaint? A. Have you or anyone in your family been diagnosed with asthma? B. When did your symptoms first start? C. Have you recently changed work or living conditions? D. How would you characterize your tobacco use and alcohol consumption? A: When gathering a medical history, the patient needs to be comfortable and secure enough to provide honest and detailed information. Therefore, the clinician needs to create an atmosphere where the patient can openly answer questions. Creating such an environment includes maintaining an open and relaxed posture, keeping eye contact, repeating key words spoken by the patient, asking open-ended questions, and using simple phrases and words of encouragement ✔ When gathering a medical history, which of the following actions can promote effective patient communication? A. Display a relaxed, but interested, open-body posture. B. Keep it simple by asking questions that can be answered with "yes" or "no." C. Demonstrate respect for the patient' s intelligence by using medical terminology. D. Follow up each patient response with a request for verifying evidence or examples. A: Sever ' s disease is a calcaneal apophysitis that develops due to repetitive tensile forces on the Achilles tendon insertion on the calcaneus. It commonly occurs in boys between ages 10 and 12 years and girls between ages 8 and 11 years. Occurrence rate is similar between genders ✔ Which of the following athletes is most at risk for developing Sever ' s disease? A. An 11-year-old competitive male soccer player B. A 12-year-old female freestyle swimmer C. A 14-year-old elite female gymnast D. A 16-year-old male interior lineman E. A 13-year-old female track athlete B: Anemia is defined as low blood hemoglobin count, and iron-deficiency anemia results from an insufficient dietary intake of iron ✔ In athletes, which of the following is considered the primary cause of iron-deficiency anemia? A. Elevated hemoglobin level B. Insufficient dietary iron intake C. Loss of iron due to chronic heel strike D. Chronic vegetarian diet B: Vitamin K is important in the clotting process, and deficiencies can occur. Infants lack the necessary intestinal bacteria to produce vitamin K their first week or so of life.
B: The transverse plane bisects the body into superior and inferior (proximal and distal) segments. Movement in this plane occurs around a vertical axis. So, swinging a bat, where the bat remains parallel to ground and does not drop below the midline of the body, occurs in the transverse plane about a vertical axis. ✔ The bat swing in baseball (movement of the arms) takes place in which of the following planes? A. Frontal B. Transverse C. Sagittal D. Coronal A: Kyphosis can be classified as or observed by an anterior shoulder posture and an anterior curvature of the thoracic spine. Patients who present with this posture may also display forward shoulder and head postures ✔ While gathering a medical history, your patient reports a previous diagnosis of kyphosis. Which of the following best defines kyphosis? A. A convex curve of the upper thorax B. A concave curve of the lumbar area C. A lateral curve often combined with rotation D. A concave curve of the cervical area E. A lateral curve of the cervical area C: De Quervain ' s syndrome is the thickening of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus tendons and tendon sheaths, both of which run through the first dorsal carpal tunnel and attach on the thumb, otherwise known as the first digit. The thickening of those structures cause a decrease in space in the dorsal carpal tunnel. ✔ An athlete has been diagnosed with stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal carpal tunnel. What is another name for this condition? A. Guyon ' s disease B. Gamekeeper ' s thumb C. de Quervain ' s disease D. Swan-neck deformity E. Johnson ' s disease B: The subjective portion of the SOAP note is where statements and testimonials made by the patient are documented. The most common mechanism of an anterior glenohumeral dislocation is forced abduction and external rotation. ✔ While reviewing an athlete's injury report, you note his diagnosis is an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. How should the mechanism for this injury be documented in the injury report? A. In the objective section, document that the athlete stated that his arm was cocked to throw the football when he was hit. B. In the subjective section, document that the athlete reports a mechanism of shoulder abduction and external rotation. C. In the subjective section, document that the athlete states he fell on an outstretched arm.
D. In the objective section, document that you determined that he has pain when the arm is forced into horizontal adduction and external rotation. E. In the subjective section, document that you determine he has limited internal rotation and abduction B: Osteochondral fractures of the articular cartilage and underlying bone of the weight- bearing surface of the femur, tibia, or under the patella typically result from either rotation or direct trauma that compresses the articular surface between the tibia and the femur ✔ You are reviewing medical records and note that an athlete has sustained an osteochondral fracture. In which joint does this injury most commonly occur? A. Glenohumeral B. Tibiofemoral C. Patellofemoral D. Distal tibiofibular A: The physician ' s observations and measurements should be documented in the objective section of a SOAP note. HEENT is an abbreviation for head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat. EOMI is an abbreviation for extraocular muscles are intact. PERRLA is similar to PEARL, meaning pupils are equal, accommodating, and reactive to light ✔ You are reviewing dictation from a physician' s clinic and hear the following information: HEENT: EOMI, PERRLA. Which of the following best illustrates how you would transcribe this information into a SOAP note? A. In the objective section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat—extraocular muscles intact; pupils equal, regular, react to light, accommodation B. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat—extraocular muscles intact; pupils equal, regular, react to light, accommodation C. In the objective section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat—equal occlusion of mandible intact; patient excited, reactive, resistant to Likert assessment D. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat—equal occlusion of mandible intact; patient excited, reactive, resistant to Likert assessment E. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat—early onset myopic insufficiency; patient educated regarding referral for lens assessment C: The correct pathway of electrical activity is sinoatrial node to atrial musculature to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to bundle branches to Purkinje ' s fibers to ventricular musculature. This is the best answer because it correctly traces the electrical transmission from the points within the heart and is the most inclusive and complete answer. ✔ You are approached by an athlete who recently learned she has a family history of Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome. She is asymptomatic but is confused and has questions regarding this cardiac arrhythmia condition. You decide to begin your explanation of this condition by explaining normal cardiac activity. Which of the following paths constitutes the normal route for conduction of electrical activity through the heart? A. Sinoatrial node to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to Purkinje' s fibers to ventricular musculature
✔ Which of the following questions could you ask while talking to a patient that will allow you to demonstrate concern for the patient and establish rapport that may improve the quality of the information you receive? A. "How is your pain impacting your daily life and the things you enjoy doing?" B. "Can you point to the place where it hurts the most?" C. "How many times have you been evaluated for this injury and by whom? D. "Is the condition getting better?" C: Record retention schedules differ by state, but most states require paper records to be maintained for 7 years and then destroyed ✔ In most states, how long must paper medical records be maintained before they can be destroyed? A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 7 years D. 10 years A: The peroneal tendons are primarily held in position by the superior retinaculum and the inferior peroneal retinaculum, with the inferior peroneal retinaculum playing a lesser role ✔ A volleyball player has inverted and plantar-flexed her ankle. She complains of lateral ankle pain. On inspection, you note the presence of two tendons posterior to the lateral malleolus. What anatomic structures maintain these tendons in this position? A. Superior and inferior peroneal retinacula B. Superior and inferior tibial retinacula C. Lateral and posterior fibular retinacula D. Superior and inferior extensor retinacula E. Lateral and inferior calcaneal retinacula E: Prepatellar bursa is located anterior to the patella, and its purpose is to protect the patella and to dissipate forces and reduce friction. ✔ An athlete reports falling directly on his knee and presents with a golf ball-sized lump just below the skin over the patella. Which bursa is most associated with this presentation? A. Deep infrapatellar B. Suprapatellar C. Superfi cial infrapatellar D. Pes anserine E. Prepatellar C: The sinus tarsi is a landmark that is located just anterior to the lateral malleolus. This landmark appears as a depression and marks the site of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle ✔ Which of the following best describes the location of the sinus tarsi? A. Just posterior to the lateral malleolus B. Just posterior to the medial malleolus
C. Just anterior to the lateral malleolus D. Just anterior to the medial malleolus E. Just inferior to the lateral malleolus A: Anabolic steroid abuse in adolescents can result in shortened stature due to premature epiphyseal plate closure as well as increased incidence of tendinopathies. ✔ After reviewing an adolescent athlete ' s medical history, you suspect that the athlete may have used anabolic steroids in an effort to increase muscle mass. What skeletal impact may result from anabolic steroid use? A. Premature epiphyseal plate closure B. Decreased bone density C. Exostosis development at apophyseal sites D. Increased incidence of stress fractures B: Overtraining occurs when the physical load exceeds the athlete ' s ability to manage the load and can manifest in injury and other medical and psychological symptoms ✔ A collegiate freshman cross country athlete you are treating for Achilles tendinosis complains of loss of appetite, difficulty sleeping, fatigue, and a significant decrease in her performance compared with the previous season. What condition might you suspect? A. Homesickness and depression B. Staleness and over training C. Burnout D. Malingering C: The valgus loading and external rotation create compressive forces on the lateral meniscus. The medial meniscus is not loaded because the valgus load causes the joint line to open on the medial side, the extent of which is determined by the medial collateral ligament (MCL) and its strength. ✔ The classic mechanism of injury for a medial collateral ligament sprain of the knee is valgus stress with external tibial rotation. When this force occurs, what other injurious force may occur simultaneously? A. Medial meniscus sustains compressive forces. B. Iliotibial band sustains tensile forces. C. Lateral meniscus sustains compressive forces. D. Popliteus muscle sustains tensile forces. E. Posterior cruciate ligament sustains compressive forces. C: The purpose of the observation/physical inspection phase of injury assessment is to gather information by observing signs of injury that are visible to the naked eye. ✔ Which of the following pieces of information should be gathered during the observation-inspection phase of the injury assessment process? A. Severity of pain B. Presence of crepitation C. Presence of swelling or ecchymosis D. Presence of paresthesia E. Type of activity that caused the pain
B: With the position of the left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) inferior to the right ASIS, it may be assumed that the bone itself is rotated anteriorly, causing the discrepancy in the levelness of the two ✔ During observation of an athlete ' s hip and pelvis, you note that while the athlete is standing erect, her left anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) is slightly inferior to her right ASIS. What condition might be associated with this observation? A. Normal pelvic alignment B. Anteriorly rotated left ilium C. Anteriorly rotated right ilium D. Posteriorly rotated left sacrum E. Posteriorly rotated right sacrum B: Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease. It can cause dysuria, or painful urination, and discharge. ✔ A male athlete comes to the athletic trainer complaining of painful urination and pus discharge from the penis and confides that he had unprotected sexual contact approximately 1 week earlier. Based on his symptoms, what should the athletic trainer suspect is the athlete's immediate problem? A. Tinea cruris B. Gonorrhea C. Urethritis D. Syphilis E. Human papillomavirus B: Reliability values greater than 0.75 are considered "good," and the closer the measure is to 1.0, the more reliable the test is considered to be. ✔ After gathering a history and developing a differential diagnosis, you need to evaluate the various clinical orthopedic tests available to determine which ones you will complete to confirm your diagnosis. You want to select the most reliable special tests. Which of the following special tests is considered to be the most reliable? A. Drop-arm test (interrater reliability measure: 0.57) B. Relocation test (interrater reliability measure: 0.71) C. Anterior release (interrater reliability measure: 0.63) D. Sulcus sign (interrater reliability measure: 0.60) D: Shoulder mechanics require the elevation of the scapula to accommodate for the motion of the more mobile humerus ✔ You are observing a swimmer complete forward shoulder flexion during a physical examination. How should the scapula be moving after the first 60° of forward flexion of the glenohumeral joint? A. The scapula should be upwardly rotating, moving 2° for every 1° of glenohumeral motion. B. The scapula should be elevating, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion. C. The scapula should be elevating, moving 2° for every 1° of glenohumeral motion.
D. The scapula should be upwardly rotating, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion. E. The scapula should be abducting, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion. D: The muscles that comprise the hypothenar eminence are the abductor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, and fl exor digiti minimi brevis ✔ A skier reports to your athletic training facility following a hard fall during a giant slalom race. He is complaining of pain around the area of the hypothenar eminence, so after observing this area you begin palpating the soft tissue. What muscles comprise the hypothenar eminence? A. Flexor digitorum superfi cialis, fl exor digitorum profundus, and lumbricals B. Abductor pollicis brevis, fl exor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis C. Abductor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis brevis, and tendon of the fl exor pollicis longus D. Abductor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, and fl exor digiti minimi brevis E. Extensor digiti minimi, adductor digiti minimi, and dorsal interossei D: The nerve roots of C5 through T1 comprise the brachial plexus. If these nerves are stretched, the result is transient paresthesia in the upper arm, commonly known as a stinger. ✔ A football running back sustained a compression mechanism to the brachial plexus. To assess the extent of this injury, you perform both sensory and motor testing of the nerves of the brachial plexus. From which of the following nerve roots are the nerves of the brachial plexus derived? A. C2-C B. C3-C C. C4-C D. C5-T E. C5-T C: If the patient is unable to hold the test position against gravity, he or she should be positioned to reduce the effects of gravity. In this case, by positioning the patient supine for a middle deltoid manual muscle, the patient is not working against gravity ✔ When completing a manual muscle test for the middle deltoid muscle, in what position should the athlete be placed if he is unable to hold the test position against gravity? A. Semirecumbent, with examiner standing anterior to the athlete B. Seated, with the examiner standing at the side of the athlete C. Supine, with the examiner standing caudally D. Seated, with the examiner standing behind the athlete E. Semirecumbent, with the examiner standing behind the athlete C: To permit anterior translation of the talus on the tibia and stress the anterior talofi bular ligament, the ankle joint needs to be in an open packed position of 10° to 20° of plantar fl exion
examiner listens for the Korotkoff sounds while watching the aneroid dial. Which of the following Korotkoff phase descriptions is accurate? A. The first two consecutive beats heard as the cuff deflates are phase I and indicate diastolic pressure. B. The knocking, crisp, high-pitched sounds are phase II and indicate systolic pressure. C. The swooshing sound is phase IV and results from the turbulent blood fl ow through the partially occluded artery. D. The disappearance of the last audible sound is phase V, also known as the fifth Korotkoff sound, and defines diastolic pressure. A: While standing or sitting up straight, the patient should exhale completely, take in a deep breath, and then with mouth sealed around mouthpiece, blow out as hard and fast as possible. ✔ A peak fl ow meter can be used to obtain a quick assessment of a patient ' s pulmonary function. Which of the following statements reflects correct use of a peak fl ow meter? A. With the mouth sealed around the mouthpiece, the patient should blow out as hard and as fast as possible. B. The patient should be positioned supine or in semirecumbent position. C. Before giving the unit to the patient, slide the indicator tabs to the top of the meter. D. With the mouthpiece attached to the meter, instruct the patient to hold the meter just in front of his mouth as he exhales completely and then inhales as hard and fast as possible. B: This athlete ' s heart rate is 56 beats/min. A heart rate at rest that is less than 60 beats/min is termed bradycardia and is common in well-conditioned athletes ✔ A cross country runner reports to your athletic training facility for a preparticipation physical examination. When assessing her vital signs, you determine her resting heart rate is 14 beats in 15 seconds. What should you conclude? A. The athlete is demonstrating bradycardia, which is a sign of physiological distress. B. The athlete is demonstrating bradycardia, which is common in well-trained athletes. C. The athlete is demonstrating a normal heart rate. D. The athlete is demonstrating tachycardia, which is common in well-trained athletes. E. The athlete is demonstrating tachycardia, which is a sign of physiological distress. C: Two to 3 hours after eating, a normal blood glucose level reading is between 100 mg/dL and 140 mg/dL. A reading of 203 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia ✔ You receive a call from your team physician alerting you that the female equestrian athlete you had referred to him has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The athlete reports to the athletic training facility and tells you she ate lunch approximately 2 hours ago. She just checked her blood glucose level, and the glucometer reading was 203 mg/dL. How would you interpret these results? A. The blood glucose level indicates impaired glucose tolerance. B. The blood glucose level indicates normal physiological glucose management. C. The blood glucose level indicates uncontrolled diabetes. D. The blood glucose level indicates the athlete is hypoglycemic.
A: During running the length of the stride is increased to accommodate for the increased leg turnover, and the stride width is streamlined in order to improve efficiency and reduce unnecessary muscle fatigue ✔ Which of the following statements best describes how normal running gait differs from normal walking gait? A. Running gait has a greater stride length and less stride width. B. Running gait requires less range of motion and strength. C. The running gait cycle contains the dual phases of double limb support. D. Preswing is absent from the running gait cycle. E. The running gait cycle has less total upward and downward motion of the body. E: When the knee fl exes past 30°, the iliotibial (IT) band slides posteriorly to the lateral femoral condyle, making the IT band a knee flexor. When fully extended, the IT band sits anteriorly to the lateral femoral condyle, making the IT band a knee extensor. ✔ In performing Renne ' s test, an athlete squats, flexing the knee to 30°. As the athlete returns to the start position of the knees in full extension, how does the function of the iliotibial band change? A. The iliotibial band is now able to assist in hip abduction. B. The iliotibial band acts to internally rotate the tibia. C. The iliotibial band creates posterior tibial translation. D. The iliotibial band assists in superior patellar glide. E. The iliotibial band goes from being a knee flexor to being a knee extensor. A: Palpating the contralateral, uninvolved extremity before the injured extremity can assist in calming patients, while establishing a positive examiner/patient rapport. Palpation is typically performed in a specifi c sequence, beginning away from and then progressing toward the injury site ✔ When evaluating a visibly upset child with an acute ankle injury, which of the following palpation schemes would be most appropriate? A. Palpate the contralateral side first, and then palpate the injured ankle with light pressure beginning away from the injury. B. Palpate the contralateral side first, and then palpate the injured ankle beginning at the injury site and working away using light pressure. C. Palpate the injured side first, beginning away from the injury with light pressure, working toward the injured site; then palpate the contralateral side only as needed for comparison. D. Palpate the injured side first, beginning at the injury site with light pressure, working away from the injury; then palpate the contralateral side only as needed for comparison. E. Palpate only the structures on the involved limb necessary to gather information. B: By envisioning the underlying anatomy, a clinician can palpate bones in a particular sequence while conducting a physical examination. ✔ Which of the following demonstrates the order of bony palpation from proximal to distal? A. Peroneal tubercle, cuboid, third cuneiform, styloid process at base of the fifth metatarsal
