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A series of multiple-choice questions and answers covering fundamental concepts in radiology. It covers topics such as anatomy, radiation physics, image acquisition techniques, patient care, and safety protocols. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of essential principles in the field of radiography.
Typology: Exams
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"The ______ sinus(es) sit(s) directly beneath the sella turcica. a. ethmoidal b. frontal c. maxillary
The sphenoidal sinuses are usually paired (2) and are in the body of the sphenoid bone. The sinuses lie below the sella turcica and extend between the posterior ethmoidal air cells and the dorsal sellae." "The _____ vein is BEST suited for venipuncture. a. basilic b. popliteal c. femoral
The basilica and cephalic veins are the 2 most common sites of venipuncture. The popliteal and femoral veins are in the lower extremities, which are harder to access and should only be used in cases of emergency. The right internal jugular vein is more commonly used for central venous access and is not a common site for venipuncture." "Primary radiation barriers must be AT LEAST ____ feet high. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7
Primary protective barriers are required to be 7 feet high from the door." "The ______ receives electrons immediately after they are read out from an imaging detector. a. transformer b. helium neon laser c. liquid crystal display
Electrons are analog data. Once they leave the detector, they are sent to the analog-to-digital converter for sampling and quantization. Hence, the image is converted into a digital image."
"An image that has many shades of gray with few differences among them is defined as exhibiting: a. high spatial resolution b. low contrast c. high dynamic range
Low-contrast images consist of many gray shades with very little differences among the shades. These images are also referred to as exhibiting long-scale contrast. Spatial resolution deals with image sharpness and dynamic range is the imaging detector's range of response to exposures. Bit depth has to do with the number of gray shades that a system can yield. A low bit depth system would actually result in an image that displays few shades of gray. In other words, the image would appear more black and white." "Which of the following are facial bones? a. nasal, lacrimal, vomer, and mandible b. maxillary, zygoma, palatine, and parietal c. vomer, zygoma, sphenoid, and lacrimal
mandible The facial bones include nasal (2), lacrimal (2), maxillary (2), zygoma (2), palatine (2),inferior nasal conchae (2), and mandible." "The quality of x-ray photons is affected by: a. collimation b. focal spot size c. kilovoltage
The quality or energy of x-rays is determined by the kilo voltage that is set on the operator control panel. Exposure time affects the quantity of photons that are produced. Collimation affects the volume of tissue that is irradiated and focal spot size affects the spatial resolution." "Which are the appropriate methods to ensure the correct drug is administered to the patient?
c. Bucky slot cover
"X-ray tubes are operated at or above _____ kVp to avoid being space-charge limited. a. 35 b. 40 c. 55
Below 40 kVp, the current that flows in an X-ray tube is limited by the space-charge effect. This means that the strong electrostatic repulsion of electrons makes it difficult for the filament to release additional electrons when the filament temperature is increased. So, below 40 kVp, increasing the mA has very little effect on increasing tube current. Therefore, to increase tube current, the kVp has to be increased. However, small changes in kVp result in significant increases in tube current and this is not desirable." "When obtaining images for a bone age protocol on an infant, it is BEST to use ____ to ___. a. large focal spot; increase OID b. large focal spot; optimize spatial resolution c. small focal spot; increase OID
optimize spatial resolution" "Select the statement below that is TRUE as it relates to a non stochastic (deterministic) effect. a. a réponse is known to occur b. no threshold dose exists c. the effect of radiation is unrelated to the dose
response is known to occur A deterministic effect is one that is known to occur following exposure to radiation." "When positioning a patient for an AP projection (open-mouth technique_ for a C1-C2, the _____ plane/lines should be perpendicularar to the image receptor. a. coronal b. interpupillary c. occlusal
Ideally, this prevents the base of the skull of the top incisors from obscuring the dens and the zygapophyseal join of C1-C2." "When acquiring a lateral projection of the finger, it is important to keep the finger parallel to the image receptor because in this position: a. the joint spaces are perpendicular to the image receptor and open on the resulting image b. the joint spaces are parallel to the image receptor and open on the resulting image c. elongation of the phalanx enables an unobscured view of a fracture
image The radiographer should keep the patient's finger parallel to the image receptor when obtaining a lateral projection of the finger. This position places the joint spaces perpendicular to the image receptor; therefore, they will be open on the resulting image. Additionally, positioning the finger parallel to the receptor minimizes elongation and foreshortening." "Technologists should rotate a patient ____ degrees for an AP axial oblique projection of the C- spine. a. 15 b. 20 c. 35
The intervertebral foramina sit at a 45 degree angle from the midsagittal plane" "Combining 2 hydroxyl radicals (OH*) will form: A) H2O+. B) H2O2. C) H3O.
"All of the following are within acceptable kVp accuracy variance for an exposure using 80 kVp EXECPT FOR ____ kVp. a. 86 b. 84 c. 82
"What medium is injected into the joint of a patient undergoing positive single-contrast radiographic arthrography? a. water-soluble iodinated contrast b. oil-soluble iodinated contrast c. air
During positive single-contrast radiographic arthrography, water-soluble iodinated contrast is injected into the joint space." "Genetic defects and cancer are examples of _____ effects. a. deterministic b. nonstochastic c. stochastic
Genetic defects and cancer are both stochastic responses to radiation exposure." "The process of electrons boiling off the filament is referred to as: a. space charge effect b. incandescence c. space cloud limited
When the filament is heated to the point of incandescence (glowing), electrons are boiled off the filament. This process is called thermionic emission, which means the release of electrons (ions) resulting from heat." "The rationale behind the development of automatic exposure control (AEC) is to: a. decrease the need for technique charts b. make the technologist more of a button pusher c. reduce repeats and improve image quality
image quality The purpose of AEC is to ensure the consistency of receptor exposure regardless of patient thickness, which leads to improved image quality and fewer repeat examinations."
"The junction between the coronal and sagittal sutures of the skull is called the: a. asterion b. lambda c. bregma
"According to NCRP Report No. 116, annual occupational exposure to the lens of the eye should not exceed: a. 25 mSv b. 50 mSv c. 100 mSv
NCRP Report No. 116 states the annual occupational exposure limit for the lens of the eye is 150 mSv, or 15 rem." "A contrast medium that lets x-ray photons easily pass through it is considered: a. radiolucent b. radiopaque c. opaque
"The letter "U" as an abbreviation can be mistaken for: a. 0 b. unilateral c. under
The letter "U" can have a closed loop at the top of the letter, which might cause it to be mistaken for a 0 or the number 4." "The center cell is selected for an AP lumbar spine, the MOST likely response of the AEC if the spine is not over the ion chamber is that: a. kVp will decrease b. mAs will increase c. exposure time will decrease
Nonverbal communication includes all exchange of information from one person to the other absence the actual words of speech. Paralanguage and body language are considered forms of nonverbal communication. Verbal communication includes speech and grammar." "Which of the following radiography equipment features is designed to eliminate unnecessary radiation exposure to the patient? a. filtration b. minimum source-to-skin distance (SSD) of 30 inches c. tube window
The use of filtration eliminates low energy x-ray photons from the beam" "The outer portion of the double-walled sac din the abdominal cavity is called the: a. parietal periotoneum b. visceral periotoneum c. parietal pleura
The outer portion of the sac is the parietal peritoneum. The inner portion of the sac is the visceral peritoneum. The pleurae are located in the thoracic cavity." "A patient is injected with a large volume of fluid intravenously; this is called a(n): a. intravenous push b. bolus c. drip infusion
A bolus is a large volume of injected fluid. An intravenous push is the action of rapid injection of fluid. Drip infusion is the infusion of liquid into the vein, but can include a large or small amount of liquid. Drop flow is not a medical term used in venipuncture procedures." "Which of the following are carpal bones? a. capitate, hamate, navicular, talus b. calcaneus, hamate, pisiform, scaphoid c. capitate, hamate, scaphoid, talus
scaphoid
The carpal bones are the scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate." "Children have epiphyseal plates made of ___ that can be evaluated as part of normal chronologic age for bone age analysis. a. fibrocartilage b. elastic cartilage c. hyaline cartilage
"The ejection of an electron from an atom or molecule is known as: a. ionization b. trephination c. excitation
"The upright abdomen must include the: a. pubic symphysis at the bottom of the image b. diaphragm at the top of the image c. bladder at the bottom of the image
the image The upright abdomen must include the diaphragm at the top of the image. An upright abdomen can show air-fluid and free air in the abdomen. The highest region the free air would migrate to is just below the diaphragm. If the diaphragm is not included on the image, the presence of air might go undiagnosed." "For a PA axial oblique projection of the C-spine, the central ray is angle ___ degrees in the ____ direction. a. 15 to 20; caudad b. 15 to 20; cephalad c. 45; caudad
A 15 to 20 degree caudal angle coincides with the angle of the intervertebral foramina of interest." "When electrons move through a conductor, ______ is said to flow a. voltage
"Tinctures, ointments, lotions, and sprays are administered by the ______ route. a. topical b. intravenous c. oral
The drugs listed are applied directly to the skin, or topically. Intravenous administration is by way of the veins. Oral administration is by mouth, Intramuscular medications are injected into muscle." "Exposure of an embryo or fetus to radiation from ______ can result in congenital abnormalities. a. 0 days to 9 days of development b. 10 days to 6 weeks of development c. 6 weeks to 20 weeks of development
"When evaluating an AP projection (open-mouth) radiograph of C1-C2, the occlusal surface of the ____ should be superimposed with the _____. a. top incisors; base of the skull b. bottom incisors; base of the skull c. top incisors; dens
the skull Having occlusal surface of the top incisors superimposed on the base of the skull decreases the likelihood of either of them being superimposed on the dens or the articulations between C1 and C2." "The interventional Commission of Radiological Protection (ICRP) dose equivalent limit for the hands is ____ mSv. a. 20 b. 50 c. 150
"For children older than 3 years, bone age is MOST commonly determined by comparing a radiograph of ____ with a set of reference images. a. the hand and wrist b. bilateral hips
c. bilateral knees
Bone age is most commonly determined by comparing an image of the left hand and wrist with a set of reference images from the atlas by Greulich and Pyle." "The ____ is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. a. spleen b. liver c. stomach
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The stomach and spleen are located in the upper quadrant of the abdomen and the right lung is the thoracic cavity." "Which of the following technical factors simultaneously affects overall image quality and radiation quantity while producing the x-ray beam? a. kVp b. object-to-image distance (OID) c. half-value layer (HVL)
"The anatomic snuffbox overlies the ____ bone and the radial artery. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is a clinical sign suggesting fracture of this bone, the MOST commonly fractured carpal bone. a. capitate b. lunate c. trapezium
The anatomic snuffbox overlies the scaphoid and the radial artery. It is a depression formed when the thumb is abducted and extended by 2 tendons of the tomb. Tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox is a clinical sign suggesting fractures of the scaphoid, which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone." "Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine? a. AP axial b. AP open-mouth technique c. lateral
Bone age determination by radiographic analysis is widely accepted as an indicator of skeletal maturity." "The 3 projections taken for a long-bone measurement (scenography technique) of the lower extremity include: a. AP hip, lateral femur, and AP lower leg b. AP hip, lateral knee, and AP lower leg c. AP femur, AP lower leg, and AP foot
Sonography technique involves using 3 separate image receptors to acquire AP projections of the hips, knees, and ankles. It is very important that the patient does not move between the exposures to ensure that all of the projections are the same." "An acceptable PA chest exam is taken using 300 mA, 0.008 seconds, and 110 kVp. If this examination is repeated using an AEC that has a minimum response time of 10 ms, which of the following exposure factors would be appropriate? a. 400 mA, 0.006 seconds, 110 kVp b. 200 mA, 0.012 seconds, 110 kVp c. 600 mA, 0.004 seconds, 110 kVp
kVp The minimum response time (MRT) is the amount of time it takes for the AEC to detect and respond to an exposure. In this example, the MRT is 10 ms (0.01 seconds). This means that the AEC will not terminate an exposure in less than 0.01 seconds. Therefore, the only exposure setting that does not violate the MRT of this AEC is 200 mA. If 200 mA is selected, the exposure time will run for 0.012 seconds and the receptor will be properly exposed. If the exposure time for an exam is less than the MRT, the receptor exposure increases because the unit will not turn off until the MRT is reached." "All of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image EXCEPT FOR: a. kVp b. part size c. tube angle
Kilovolts peak has an effect on receptor exposure and contrast only. Tube angle affects spatial resolution because of unequal magnification of the part. Part size affects spatial resolution
because of magnification (larger parts increase the OID, which results in decreased spatial resolution). SID affects spatial resolution because of beam divergence." "When discussing a grid, the letter "K" represents the _______. a. grid ratio b. contrast improvement factor c. Bucky factor
The letter "K" represents the contrast improvement factor for a grid. The grid ratio is the height of the lead strips relative to the distance between the lead strips. Grid selectivity is the measure of how much scatter vs primary beam the grid removes." "Which of the following is the BEST projection for demonstrating the intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine? a. AP b. lateral c. oblique
The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic vertebrae are situated 90 degrees from the midsagittal plane. Placing the patient in a true lateral position opens the intervertebral foramina." “All of the following EXCEPT ___ will result in an increase in AEC response time. a. decreasing the kVp b. Increasing the focal spot size c. increasing the part thickness
Increasing the focal spot size does not change the AEC response time It affects the spatial resolution. Decreasing the kVp increases the exposure time because more photons are absorbed, resulting in fewer reaching the cell(s). The same is true for increasing part thickness. Increasing the SID results in a longer exposure time because of beam divergence and the decrease in the number of photons reaching the cell(s)." "Of the following, the greatest attenuator of x-rays is: a. air b. bone c. muscle
information and preferring to be left alone. Depression affects the patient's mood or behavior regarding the illness, and can cause despair and mourning." "Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding standard precautions for venipuncture? a. standard precautions are not necessary for simple needle sticks b. all patients are potentially infected with blood borne pathogens c. only pediatric patients require the use of standard precautions
"Using a 75 kVp x-ray beam with a 0.25 mm lead-equivalent apron provides protection from _______ of the beam. a. 55% b. 66% c. 77%
"The typical flow rate for drip infusion drug administration is _______ drops per minute. a. 5 to 10 b. 10 to 20 c. 20 to 30
A flow rate of 10 to 20 drops per minute is acceptable for drip infusion unless otherwise instructed by the physician." "The positive side of the X-ray tube is known as the: a. anode b. rotor c. target
"Evaluation of ______ are the primary indications for arthrography of the shoulder. a. rotator cuff tears or sternoclavicular join separation b. labral tears or sternoclavicular joint separation c. rotator cuff tears or acromioclavicular joint separation
Indications for shoulder arthography might include evaluation evaluation of rotator cuff tears or labral tears; persistent pain or weakness; or frozen shoulder." "Which of the following is an example of a primary barrier?
a. lead apron b. lead gloves c. exposure room door
The exposure room door protects outside occupants from exposure to the primary beam" "Which of the following is a guideline used to reduce personnel and patient dose during fixed fluoroscopy? a. 30 Roentgents (R)/min maximum tabletop exposure rate b. 15-inch minimum SSD c. minimum filtration of 1.5 mm aluminum equivalent
The minimum source-to-skin distance for a fixed fluoroscopy unit is 15 inches" "The angle of the anode in the region of the target has a variation of ______ to _______ degrees. a. 0; 3 b. 5; 6 c. 7; 20
"Select the item below that is NOT required as part of a standardized technique chart. a. SID b. OID c. mA
The OID is not a technical factor that the radiographer can readily control during an examination. The other factors are routinely selected by the radiographer during an examination." "The BEST reason to use touch for emphasis when performing a radiologic examination is to: a. specify instructions or locations b. convey empathy c. measure a body part before choosing exposure factors
Touch from a radiologic technologist can assist a patient with understanding appropriate positioning or communicate locations for a specific examination. Empathy can reassure patients, but is expressed more in words and tone than touch." "The ____ pleura closely adheres to the surface of the lung.