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APEA FNP PREDICTOR EXAM 2025 | 100 MUST-KNOW MCQS
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS | HIGH-
YIELD STUDY GUIDE
1. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale screens for: A. Narcolepsy B. Obstructive sleep apnea C. Central sleep apnea D. Insomnia
Answer: B. Obstructive sleep apnea Explanation: Scores ≥10 suggest excessive daytime sleepiness, commonly associated with OSA.
2. A 14-year-old with proximal forearm pain and a positive fat pad sign on X-ray likely has: A. Supracondylar fracture B. Ulnar dislocation C. Radial head fracture D. Nursemaid’s elbow
Answer: C. Radial head fracture Explanation: A positive fat pad (sail sign) on X-ray in this age group commonly indicates occult radial head fracture.
3. A child begins using an arm immediately after manipulation. This suggests: A. Fracture reduction B. Muscle spasm resolution C. Successful treatment of subluxation D. Ligament repair
Answer: C. Successful treatment of subluxation Explanation: Rapid return of function suggests successful treatment of radial head subluxation (nursemaid’s elbow).
4. White papules on erythematous buccal mucosa base in a child with fever and rash suggest: A. Scarlet fever B. Measles C. Rubella D. Strep throat
Answer: B. Measles Explanation: Koplik spots are pathognomonic for measles.
5. A 12-month-old looking under a table for a hidden toy demonstrates: A. Separation anxiety B. Stranger awareness C. Object permanence D. Reassurance seeking
Answer: C. Object permanence Explanation: This is the cognitive ability to understand that objects continue to exist even when out of sight.
6. A 17-year-old with suspected PCOS should have the following labs (besides testosterone): A. HCG, Prolactin B. LH, FSH, TSH C. CA-125, Insulin D. ANA, RF
Answer: B. LH, FSH, TSH Explanation: These hormones help evaluate endocrine causes of amenorrhea and ovarian dysfunction.
7. The first step when a child with type I diabetes reports sweating and weakness: A. Administer glucagon B. Provide a sugary snack C. Call emergency services D. Measure blood sugar
Answer: D. Measure blood sugar Explanation: Hypoglycemia is suspected and should be confirmed prior to intervention.
Explanation: A painless testicular mass in a young male raises strong suspicion for testicular cancer.
12. A college student with green sputum, pleuritic chest pain, and fever likely has: A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Bronchitis D. GERD
Answer: B. Pneumonia Explanation: Symptoms indicate lower respiratory infection with consolidation.
13. Mid-cycle spotting on oral contraceptives (Ortho-Novum 7/7/7) should be managed by: A. Switching pills B. Estrogen supplement C. Reassurance D. Discontinuing the pill
Answer: C. Reassurance Explanation: Mid-cycle spotting is a common side effect early in use.
14. A male post-cryptorchidism repair should be educated on: A. Infertility risk B. Sperm count testing C. Testosterone therapy D. Testicular self-examination
Answer: D. Testicular self-examination Explanation: Risk of testicular cancer is higher; TSE is essential.
15. Diagnostic test after recent treatment for trichomonas with new urinary symptoms: A. Pap smear B. STI swab C. Microscopic urine exam D. Culture and sensitivity
Answer: C. Microscopic urine exam Explanation: Burning may indicate UTI or reinfection; initial test is microscopy.
16. A 22-year-old with a heart rate of 48 bpm but regular rhythm may require: A. Thyroid test B. Stress test C. Holter monitor D. Assessment for athletic status
Answer: D. Assessment for athletic status Explanation: Athletes often have bradycardia without pathology.
17. A female who missed 2 OCPs should: A. Stop taking OCPs B. Take double dose for 2 days and use backup C. Restart the cycle D. Call provider
Answer: B. Take double dose for 2 days and use backup Explanation: This prevents ovulation while maintaining coverage.
18. Common cause of recurrent candidiasis: A. Frequent douching B. Poor hygiene C. Diabetes mellitus D. Antibiotic resistance
Answer: C. Diabetes mellitus Explanation: Hyperglycemia supports fungal growth.
19. Rash on the buccal mucosa with white spots and fever is indicative of: A. Rubella
23. A joint disorder with autoimmune origin is likely: A. Osteoarthritis B. Gout C. Psoriatic arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: D. Rheumatoid arthritis Explanation: It’s systemic and autoimmune with joint stiffness and inflammation.
24. A 30-year-old male with pelvic pain and urinary urgency likely has: A. Bladder cancer B. Epididymitis C. Acute bacterial prostatitis D. Interstitial cystitis
Answer: C. Acute bacterial prostatitis Explanation: Symptoms of pelvic pain, dysuria, and frequency are classic.
25. The test to assess internal organ structure via sound waves is a: A. CT scan B. Sonogram C. MRI D. X-ray
Answer: B. Sonogram Explanation: A sonogram (ultrasound) uses sound waves and is noninvasive.
26. A woman with heavy menstrual bleeding and firm uterine mass likely has: A. Endometrial cancer B. Adenomyosis C. Uterine leiomyomas D. Endometriosis
Answer: C. Uterine leiomyomas Explanation: Fibroids are common benign tumors causing menorrhagia.
27. A man with sudden severe testicular pain may have: A. Epididymitis B. Hydrocele C. Testicular torsion D. Hernia
Answer: C. Testicular torsion Explanation: This is a surgical emergency with acute onset pain.
28. A common symptom in inflammatory joint diseases: A. Tenderness after rest B. Morning stiffness C. Night cramps D. Swelling post-activity
Answer: B. Morning stiffness Explanation: RA and similar conditions cause stiffness that improves with movement.
29. A reflex where the testicle elevates when inner thigh is stroked: A. Babinski reflex B. Plantar reflex C. Cremasteric reflex D. Crossed extension reflex
Answer: C. Cremasteric reflex Explanation: Stroking the thigh causes ipsilateral testicular elevation.
30. Heavy smoker with chronic cough and foul-smelling sputum may have: A. Asthma B. Sinusitis C. Lung abscess or infection D. Emphysema
B. Osteoarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Psoriatic arthritis
Answer: C. Rheumatoid arthritis Explanation: RA is autoimmune and typically involves both sides of the body symmetrically.
35. A 16-year-old female with spotting while on birth control should: A. Be reassured B. Switch to another pill C. Take estrogen D. Stop taking pills
Answer: A. Be reassured Explanation: Midcycle spotting is common early in OCP use.
36. Cervical cancer screening is primarily performed using: A. Endometrial biopsy B. Pelvic ultrasound C. Pap smear D. HPV vaccine
Answer: C. Pap smear Explanation: Pap smears detect cervical cell abnormalities and are essential in early detection of cervical cancer.
37. A common symptom in inflammatory joint conditions is: A. Joint cracking B. Morning stiffness C. Skin rash D. Night pain
Answer: B. Morning stiffness Explanation: Conditions like RA typically involve stiffness after rest.
38. An erythematous macular rash is characterized by: A. Itchy fluid-filled bumps B. Flat red lesions C. Scaly patches D. Raised pustules
Answer: B. Flat red lesions Explanation: “Macular” means flat; “erythematous” means red.
39. Urine collected during normal urination is known as: A. Sterile catch B. First void C. Voided specimen D. Midstream catheterization
Answer: C. Voided specimen Explanation: A voided specimen is obtained during normal urination.
40. The cremasteric reflex involves testicle elevation when: A. Abdomen is stroked B. Thigh is tapped C. Inner thigh is stroked D. Knee is extended
Answer: C. Inner thigh is stroked Explanation: It causes ipsilateral testicle elevation.
41. Observations made during a clinical exam are called: A. Health history B. Symptoms C. Physical exam findings D. Lab values
Answer: C. Physical exam findings Explanation: These are objective observations by the provider.
Answer: C. Rectal pain Explanation: A common symptom in proctologic disorders.
46. Hidden blood in stool is detected by which test? A. Colonoscopy B. CBC C. Guaiac test D. CT scan
Answer: C. Guaiac test Explanation: Detects occult (hidden) blood in stool.
47. Medication often used for rectal inflammation is: A. Docusate B. Hydrocortisone suppositories C. Acetaminophen D. Nystatin
Answer: B. Hydrocortisone suppositories Explanation: Used to treat rectal irritation/inflammation.
48. Inflammation of the stomach lining is termed: A. GERD B. Gastritis C. Ulceration D. Dyspepsia
Answer: B. Gastritis Explanation: Often due to infection, alcohol, or NSAIDs.
49. Peptic ulcer disease affects which areas? A. Colon and ileum
B. Esophagus and stomach C. Stomach and duodenum D. Cecum and rectum
Answer: C. Stomach and duodenum Explanation: Most commonly in the duodenum.
50. Difficulty ejaculating during intercourse is known as: A. Erectile dysfunction B. Delayed ejaculation C. Premature ejaculation D. Anorgasmia
Answer: B. Delayed ejaculation Explanation: A sexual dysfunction often psychological or medication-induced.
51. Antidepressant known for causing sexual side effects: A. Bupropion B. Sertraline C. Paroxetine D. Venlafaxine
Answer: C. Paroxetine Explanation: SSRIs like paroxetine commonly cause sexual dysfunction.
52. Lung infection causing fever and productive cough is: A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. COPD D. TB
Answer: B. Pneumonia Explanation: Infection causes alveolar inflammation and exudates.
57. Condition where heart cannot pump effectively: A. Angina B. Cardiomyopathy C. Heart failure D. Pericarditis
Answer: C. Heart failure Explanation: Leads to fluid overload and poor perfusion.
58. A cardiac marker for diagnosing MI: A. CK-MB B. Troponin I C. BNP D. AST
Answer: B. Troponin I Explanation: Highly specific for myocardial injury.
59. Infection in both ears is termed: A. Unilateral otitis media B. Otitis externa C. Bilateral otitis media D. Serous otitis
Answer: C. Bilateral otitis media Explanation: Indicates middle ear infection affecting both sides.
60. A viral infection that severely compromises the immune system is: A. Influenza B. HIV infection C. HPV D. EBV
Answer: B. HIV infection Explanation: HIV targets CD4+ T-cells, weakening immunity.
61. Medication for heart failure that can cause toxicity: A. Lisinopril B. Furosemide C. Digoxin D. Metoprolol
Answer: C. Digoxin Explanation: Narrow therapeutic window; toxicity causes nausea, visual changes, arrhythmias.
62. A diuretic that may increase digoxin toxicity risk: A. Spironolactone B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) C. Furosemide D. Triamterene
Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) Explanation: Causes hypokalemia, which enhances digoxin toxicity.
63. Inflammation of temporal arteries with headache and jaw claudication indicates: A. Trigeminal neuralgia B. Cluster headache C. Temporal arteritis D. Migraine
Answer: C. Temporal arteritis Explanation: Common in elderly; risk of blindness if untreated.
64. Anemia due to lack of intrinsic factor is called: A. Iron-deficiency anemia B. Folate-deficiency anemia C. Aplastic anemia D. Pernicious anemia
C. MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) D. Platelet count
Answer: C. MCV Explanation: Helps classify anemia as microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic.
69. Swollen neck lymph nodes are referred to as: A. Axillary lymphadenopathy B. Inguinal lymphadenopathy C. Cervical lymphadenopathy D. Retropharyngeal mass
Answer: C. Cervical lymphadenopathy Explanation: Common with viral or bacterial infections.
70. Discomfort in the upper abdominal area is called: A. Epigastric pain B. RUQ pain C. GERD D. Pancreatitis
Answer: A. Epigastric pain Explanation: Epigastric region includes the stomach area.
71. A sharply defined red area under the conjunctiva suggests: A. Retinal hemorrhage B. Subconjunctival hemorrhage C. Hypopyon D. Uveitis
Answer: B. Subconjunctival hemorrhage Explanation: Usually harmless and self-limited.
72. Differentiating between conditions is known as: A. Working diagnosis B. Final diagnosis C. Diagnostic reasoning D. Differential diagnosis
Answer: D. Differential diagnosis Explanation: The process of listing possible conditions based on symptoms.
73. Prolonged, dysfunctional grieving that impacts daily life is: A. Anticipatory grief B. Chronic sorrow C. Unresolved grief D. Depression
Answer: C. Unresolved grief Explanation: Pathologic grieving process requiring intervention.
74. A bluish vaginal tint seen during early pregnancy is called: A. Goodell’s sign B. Hegar’s sign C. Chadwick’s sign D. Leopold’s sign
Answer: C. Chadwick’s sign Explanation: Due to increased vascularity of the vaginal mucosa.
75. A benign skin lesion with a “stuck-on” appearance is: A. Actinic keratosis B. Seborrheic keratosis C. Basal cell carcinoma D. Melanoma
Answer: B. Seborrheic keratosis Explanation: Waxy, raised lesion common in aging skin.
