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AMS Exam 1 Questions with Accurate Answers, Exams of Nursing

AMS Exam 1 Questions with Accurate Answers

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/17/2025

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AMS Exam 1
Questions with
Accurate Answers
A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse
assess for as the expected therapeutic response?
a. Decreased intraocular pressure
b. Increased heart rate
c. Short period of asystole
d. Hypertensive crisis correct answer c. Short period of asystole
Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea,
and chest pain. Adenosine has no conclusive impact on intraocular pressure.
A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes
that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site.
b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids.
c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg.
d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4. correct answer c. Assess the color and temperature
of the left leg.
Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction.
The
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AMS Exam 1

Questions with

Accurate Answers

A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis correct answer c. Short period of asystole Clients usually respond to adenosine with a short period of asystole, bradycardia, hypotension, dyspnea, and chest pain. Adenosine has no conclusive impact on intraocular pressure. A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as left pedal pulse of +1/4. correct answer c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. Loss of a pulse distal to an angiography entry site is serious, indicating a possible arterial obstruction. The

pulse may be faint because of edema. The left pulse should be compared with the right, and pulses should be compared with previous assessments, especially before the procedure. Assessing color (pale, cyanosis) and temperature (cool, cold) will identify a decrease in circulation. Once all peripheral and vascular assessment data are acquired, the primary health care provider should be notified. Simply documenting the findings is inappropriate. The leg should be positioned below the level of the heart or dangling to increase blood flow to the distal portion of the leg. Increasing intravenous fluids will not address the clients problem. A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96% d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min correct answer d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or- flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output will drop because of decreased HR. A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and is hypotensive. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min correct answer a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min

A left-sided cardiac catheterization specifically increases the risk for a cerebral vascular accident. A change in neurologic status needs to be acted on immediately. Discomfort and bruising are expected at the site. If intake decreases, a client can become dehydrated because of dye excretion. The second intervention would be to increase the clients fluid status. Neurologic changes would take priority. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The clients pulmonary artery pressure reading is 25/12 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings. b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low. c. Immediately notify the health care provider of the elevated pressures. d. Document the finding in the clients chart as the only action correct answer a. Compare the results with previous pulmonary artery pressure readings. Normal pulmonary artery pressures range from 15 to 26 mm Hg for systolic and from 5 to 15 mm Hg for diastolic. Although this clients readings are within normal limits, the nurse needs to assess any trends that may indicate a need for medical treatment to prevent complications. There is no need to increase intravenous fluids or notify the provider. A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this procedure? a. Clients level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents correct answer d. Allergies to iodine-based agents Before the procedure, the nurse should ascertain whether the client has an allergy to iodine-containing preparations, such as seafood or local anesthetics. The contrast medium used during the procedure is iodine based. This allergy can cause a life-threatening reaction, so it is a high priority. Second, it is important for the

nurse to assess anxiety, mobility, and baseline cardiac status. A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity correct answer b. Speech alterations Clients with atrial fibrillation are at risk for embolic stroke. Evidence of embolic events includes changes in mentation, speech, sensory function, and motor function. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have a rapid ventricular response as a result. Fatigue is a nonspecific complaint. Clients with atrial fibrillation often have dyspnea as a result of the decreased cardiac output caused by the rhythm disturbance. A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Mid-sternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave correct answer a. Mid-sternal chest pain Chest pain, possibly angina, indicates that tachycardia may be increasing the clients myocardial workload and oxygen demand to such an extent that normal oxygen delivery cannot keep pace. This results in myocardial hypoxia and pain. Increased urinary output and mild orthostatic hypotension are not life-threatening conditions and therefore do not require immediate intervention. The P wave touching the T wave

A nurse assesses an older adult client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect? a. Excruciating pain on inspiration b. Left lateral chest wall pain c. Disorientation and confusion d. Numbness and tingling of the arm correct answer c. Disorientation and confusion In older adults, disorientation or confusion may be the major manifestation of myocardial infarction caused by poor cardiac output. Pain manifestations and numbness and tingling of the arm could also be related to the myocardial infarction. However, the nurse should be more concerned about the new onset of disorientation or confusion caused by decreased perfusion. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma b. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy correct answer c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus The incidence of coronary artery disease and hypertension is higher in American Indians than in whites or Asian Americans. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for hypertension and coronary artery disease in people of any race or ethnicity. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and hormone therapy do not increase risk for cardiovascular disease A nurse assists with the cardioversion of a client experiencing acute atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse take prior to the initiation of cardioversion?

a. Administer intravenous adenosine. b. Turn off oxygen therapy. c. Ensure a tongue blade is available. d. Position the client on the left side. correct answer b. Turn off oxygen therapy. For safety during cardioversion, the nurse should turn off any oxygen therapy to prevent fire. The other interventions are not appropriate for a cardioversion. The client should be placed in a supine position. A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. Make certain that your bath water is warm. b. Avoid straining while having a bowel movement. c. Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day. d. Avoid strenuous exercise such as running. correct answer b. Avoid straining while having a bowel movement. Bearing down strenuously during a bowel movement is one type of Valsalva maneuver, which stimulates the vagus nerve and results in slowing of the heart rate. Such a response is not desirable in a person who has bradycardia. The other instructions are not appropriate for this condition A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, I am having trouble sleeping at night. How should the nurse respond? a. I will consult the provider to prescribe a sleep study to determine the problem. b. You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will help. c. A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night.

The magnetic fields of the MRI can deactivate the pacemaker. The nurse should call the health care provider and report that the client has a pacemaker so the provider can order other diagnostic tests. The client does not need an electrocardiogram, cardiac enzymes, or increased fluids. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning. How should the nurse respond? a. Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it. b. The provider has prescribed an antacid for you to take every morning. c. What do you understand about what happened to you? d. When did you start experiencing this indigestion? correct answer c. What do you understand about what happened to you? Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse should ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the clients misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain. A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Thrombophlebitis b. Stroke c. Pulmonary embolism d. Myocardial infarction e. Cardiac tamponade correct answer a. Thrombophlebitis c. Pulmonary embolism e. Cardiac tamponade Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and

vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke and myocardial infarction are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations A nurse cares for a client with an intravenous temporary pacemaker for bradycardia. The nurse observes the presence of a pacing spike but no QRS complex on the clients electrocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer intravenous diltiazem (Cardizem). b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. c. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. d. Assess capillary refill and temperature. correct answer b. Assess vital signs and level of consciousness. In temporary pacing, the wires are threaded onto the epicardial surface of the heart and exit through the chest wall. The pacemaker spike should be followed immediately by a QRS complex. Pacing spikes seen without subsequent QRS complexes imply loss of capture. If there is no capture, then there is no ventricular depolarization and contraction. The nurse should assess for cardiac output via vital signs and level of consciousness. The other interventions would not determine if the client is tolerating the loss of capture. A nurse cares for a client with atrial fibrillation who reports fatigue when completing activities of daily living. What interventions should the nurse implement to address this clients concerns? a. Administer oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula. b. Provide the client with a sleeping pill to stimulate rest. c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. d. Ask unlicensed assistive personnel to help bathe the client. correct answer c. Schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day. Clients who have atrial fibrillation are at risk for decreased cardiac output and fatigue when completing activities of daily living. The nurse should schedule periods of exercise and rest during the day to decrease fatigue. The other interventions will not assist the client with self-care activities.

A nurse has been working as a staff nurse in the surgical intensive care unit for 2 years and is interested in certification. Which credential would be most applicable for the nurse to seek? a. ACNPC-AG b. CNML c. CCRN d. PCCN correct answer c. CCRN The CCRN certification is appropriate for nurses in bedside practice who care for critically ill patients. The ACNPC-AG certification is for acute care nurse practitioners. The CNML is for critical care nurse managers or leaders. The PCCN certification is for staff nurses working in progressive care, intermediate care, or step-down unit settings. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease correct answer b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which actions should the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine.

b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter. correct answer a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. If the client has kidney disease (as indicated by BUN and creatinine results), fluids and Mucomyst may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. The client should be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the clients risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization. A nurse is teaching a client with premature ectopic beats. Which education should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management c. Avoiding vagal stimulation d. Adverse effects of medications e. Foods high in potassium correct answer a. Smoking cessation b. Stress reduction and management d. Adverse effects of medications A client who has premature beats or ectopic rhythms should be taught to stop smoking, manage stress, take medications as prescribed, and report adverse effects of medications. Clients with premature beats are not at risk for vasovagal attacks or potassium imbalances.

A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, I am afraid I might die. How should the nurse respond? a. This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low. b. Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery? c. Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery. d. What support systems do you have to assist you? correct answer c. Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery. The nurse should discuss the clients feelings and concerns related to the surgery. The nurse should not provide false hope or push the clients concerns off on the chaplain. The nurse should address support systems after addressing the clients current issue. A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 joules. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed. correct answer d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed. To avoid injury, the rescuer commands that all personnel clear contact with the client or the bed and ensures their compliance before delivery of the shock. A precordial thump can be delivered when no defibrillator is available. Defibrillation is done in asynchronous mode. Equipment should not be tested before a client is defibrillated because this is an emergency procedure; equipment should be checked on a routine basis. Epinephrine should be administered after defibrillation. A nurse prepares to discharge a client with cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information should be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge?

a. Medication reconciliation b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences correct answer a. Medication reconciliation The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information will not assist the nurse to develop a plan of care for the client. A nurse reviews a clients laboratory results. Which findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL correct answer a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low- density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis. A nurse supervises an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) applying electrocardiographic monitoring. Which statement should the nurse provide to the UAP related to this procedure? a. Clean the skin and clip hairs if needed.

e. Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks. correct answer a. Until your incision is healed, do not submerge your pacemaker. Only take showers. b. Report any pulse rates lower than your pacemaker settings. e. Do not lift your left arm above the level of your shoulder for 8 weeks. The client should not submerge in water until the site has healed; after the incision is healed, the client may take showers or baths without concern for the pacemaker. The client should be instructed to report changes in heart rate or rhythm, such as rates lower than the pacemaker setting or greater than 100 beats/min. The client should be advised of restrictions on physical activity for 8 weeks to allow the pacemaker to settle in place. The client should never apply pressure over the generator and should avoid tight clothing. The client should never have MRI because, whether turned on or off, the pacemaker contains metal. The client should be advised to inform all health care providers that he or she has a pacemaker. A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet. b. You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients. c. A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet. d. If you exercise more frequently, you wont need to change your diet correct answer b. You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients. Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse should encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse should include nutrition

education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk. A nurse who plans care based on the patient's gender, ethnicity, spirituality, and lifestyle is said to a. be a moral advocate. b. facilitate learning. c. respond to diversity. d. use clinical judgment. correct answer c. respond to diversity. Response to diversity considers all of these aspects when planning and implementing care. A moral agent helps resolve ethical and clinical concerns. Consideration of these factors does not necessarily facilitate learning. Clinical judgment uses other factors as well. A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability correct answer c. Level of consciousness A heart rate of 40 beats/min or less with widened QRS complexes could have hemodynamic consequences. The client is at risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion. The nurse should assess for level of consciousness, lightheadedness, confusion, syncope, and seizure activity. Although the other assessments should be completed, the clients level of consciousness is the priority. After teaching a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD), a nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. I should wear a snug-fitting shirt over the ICD.