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100 Questions CNOR Practice Exam with
Answers latest 2025
Aseptic technique is also known as: A. Clean technique B. Sterile technique C. Sterilization D. Decontamination
- A. Clean technique Aseptic technique refers to clean methods of containing microbial contamination in the environment. The environment cannot be sterilized. An intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury is: A. Pressure B. Hypothermia C. Diabetes mellitus D. General anesthesia
- C. Diabetes mellitus An intrinsic factor is related to the health of the patient. Diabetes mellitus is an intrinsic factor that contributes to the development of a pressure injury. Which of the following helps determine a patient's discharge destination? A. Written discharge instructions from anesthesiology and medical staff B. Risk of postoperative complications C. Standardized pain scoring D. General condition and readiness for discharge
- B. Risk of postoperative complications The choice of discharge site is based on patient acuity, access to follow-up care, and the potential for postoperative complications. Central nervous system (CNS) signs and symptoms of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) include: A. Hypertension B. Numbness of lips and tongue C. Respiratory depression D. Elevated temperature
- B. Numbness of lips and tongue
CNS symptoms of LAST include circumoral and tongue numbness. All other options are not considered part of the CNS. Autologous bone grafts should be stored at a temperature of: A. 68F (20C) B. 32F (0C) C. -4F (-20C) D. -112F (-80C)
- C. -4F (-20C) Maintaining storage temperatures within recommended parameters of -4F (-20C) helps ensure that autografts are maintained in optimal conditions for successful replantation. When providing patient education for a child, it is important to understand which learning characteristics of children? A. Children are self-directed B. Children use intrinsic thought processes C. Children respond to use of activities that follow transitions of maturity. D. Children respond to a trial-and-error approach
- D. Children respond to a trial-and-error approach When teaching children, using a trial-and-error approach is effective. Child learners are task-oriented, use extrinsic thought processes, and value self-esteem. Which of the following actions would decrease radiation exposure during fluoroscopy procedures? A. Positioning the patient as close to the tube as possible B. Positioning the patient as far from the image intensifier as possible C. Positioning the patient as far from the monitor as possible D. Positioning the patient as close to the image intensifier as possible
- D. Positioning the patient as close to the image intensifier as possible The x-ray beams originate from the tube and are captured by the image intensifier. Multiple studies have demonstrated that positioning the patient closer to the image intensifier results in a significantly decreased dose of radiation. A perioperative nurse is assisting an anesthesia professional with a rapid-sequence induction by providing cricoid pressure using the Sellick maneuver. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of this technique? A. Exerting down-and-up pressure on the cricoid cartilage to compress the trachea
The patient is most likely experiencing TUR syndrome associated excessive glycine absorption. Preoperative teaching is most effective when patients have a readiness to learn and the perioperative nurse teaches from ________ different levels. A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
- B. Three There are three different levels of preoperative teaching: information, psychosocial support, and skill training. Information should include explanations of procedure and what to expect throughout the phases of perioperative care. Psychosocial support includes encouraging the patient to share anxiety and supporting coping mechanisms. Skill training allows the patient to learn the skills required to function after the procedure and provides confidence and understanding. When caring for a patient with sickle cell anemia, the perioperative nurse should: A. Raise the temperature in the operating room to between 26.7C and 29.4C (80F and 85F). B. Have relaxing music playing in the operating room to avoid overstimulation C. Administer a liter of normal saline prior to surgery to ensure that the patient is well hydrated D. Allow a family member or friend to sit with the patient in the preoperative area and in the post anesthesia care unit.
- A. Raise the temperature in the operating room to between 26.7C and 29.4C (80F and 85F). The sickle cell patient must be kept warm to prevent hypothermia and meet increased demands for oxygen. A _______ type of fire extinguisher should be used in an operating or procedure room. A. Wet chemical B. Carbon dioxide C. Halogen D. Dry powder
- B. Carbon dioxide The National Fire Protection Association recommends using either a water mist or carbon dioxide extinguisher for extinguishing fires in the operating room. _______ requires purposeful, outcomes-directed thought and is driven by patient need.
A. Critical thinking B. Assessment C. Diagnosis D. Planning
- A. Critical thinking Scientific nursing interventions, critical thinking and clinical reasoning, and caring, comforting behaviors are at the heart of perioperative nursing. Critical thinking is a thoughtful process important in the performance of perioperative nursing care versus being part of the nursing process. A hemoglobin value considered to be within normal limits for an adult woman is: A. 10 g/dL to 14 g/dL B. 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL C. 14 g/dL to 18 g/dL D. 16 g/dL to 20 g/dL
- B. 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL Normal hemoglobin values are 12 g/dL to 16 g/dL for women and 14 g/dL to 18 g/dL for men. What technique is the safest to use when securing the arms at the patient's sides? A. Drawing a sheet under the arms, over the patient, and using non-penetrating clamps to secure it to the opposite side B. Drawing a sheet over the arm and then sliding it between the mattress and the bed C. Drawing a sheet over the arm and tucking it between the patient and the mattress D. Wrapping the patient's arm with padding and securing it to the body with a safety strap
- C. Drawing a sheet over the arm and tucking it between the patient and the mattress A safe and effective way to prevent nerve injury of the upper extremities is to secure the patient's arms by smoothly wrapping the draw sheet over the arm and then tucking it under the patient's body to prevent arm slippage during surgery. Which of the following intraoperative medication orders would prompt a perioperative nurse to have a urinary catheter readily available? A. Levetiracetam 1gm IV after incision B. Cefepime 2g/100mL IV infusion within 30 minutes of incision C. Ketorolac 20mg IV push before incision D. Mannitol 10% 10g/100mL after incision
- D. Mannitol 10% 10g/100mL after incision
A. Prior to the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge B. During the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge after each use C. After the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge in the sterile processing area D. Continually clean the instrument with a sponge moistened with saline
- B. During the procedure, the instrument is cleaned with a moist sponge after each use One type of point-of-use cleaning of a surgical instrument is when the instrument is cleaned with a sterile, water-soaked sponge after each use during the procedure. Point- of-use cleaning also occurs when an instrument is cleaned at the point of use immediately following the procedure. Saline should not be used for point-of-care cleaning. Cleaning at the point of use prevents bioburden from building up on the instrument and helps maintain the life of the instrument. Venous air embolism is most likely to occur when the patient is in the ________ position. A. Supine B. Sitting C. Lithotomy D. Lateral
- B. Sitting Venous air embolism can occur when air or gas is drawn into the circulation by the veins above the level of the heart and is most likely to occur during neurosurgery or open shoulder surgery in the sitting or semi-sitting position. A subjective sign of the existence and intensity of postoperative pain is the patient's: A. Self-report B. Change in blood pressure C. Facial expression D. Protective guarding behavior
- A. Self-report A subjective sign is what the patient states. Objective signs include results from physical assessment or observation. A nursing diagnosis that considers a patient is at risk means the nursing interventions: A. Are directed at prevention B. Will not affect the patient's outcome C. Should be performed only as needed D. May put the patients at risk
- A. Are directed at prevention
For perioperative patients, nursing diagnoses that consider a patient at risk for an outcome mean the problem has not yet occurred, and the interventions are directed at prevention. Signs of a blood transfusion reaction include which of the following? A. Hypotension, hemoglobinuria, hyperthermia B. Weak pulse, hemoglobinuria, hypertension C. Hypothermia, weak pulse, tachycardia D. Hypothermia, hemoglobinuria, tachycardia
- A. Hypotension, hemoglobinuria, hyperthermia A blood transfusion reaction reflects vasomotor instability and is evidenced by hypotension, hemoglobinuria, and hyperthermia. Many common signs are not readily obvious when a patient is under anesthesia. When performing time out, which of the following should be verified? A. Laboratory studies B. Instruments C. Suture D. Procedure
- D. Procedure Ensuring correct-site surgery requires affirmation of the following: correct patient, position, site, procedures, equipment, images, and implants (if required). Pneumatic tourniquets should be deflated under the direction of: A. The surgeon and the scrub person B. The anesthesia professional and the circulating nurse C. The circulating nurse and the surgeon D. The surgeon and the anesthesia professional
- D. The surgeon and the anesthesia professional Hemodynamic changes may occur when the tourniquet is deflated. As the tourniquet cuff deflates, the anesthetic agent may be released into the circulatory system, causing systemic effects. Coordination among members of the perioperative team under the direction of the surgeon and the anesthesia professional can facilitate management of the patient's physiologic status during this period of rapid change. Which organization should be consulted about a perioperative RN's scope of practice related to administration of medications for moderate sedation? A. Association of periOperative Registered Nurses B. The Joint Commission
The postoperative assessment or follow-up telephone call terminates the direct perioperative nurse-patient relationship. Operating room floors should be cleaned with: A. Dry mops B. Brooms C. Vacuums D. Damp or wet mops
- D. Damp or wet mops Wet and moist mopping produce fewer aerosols and are most effective in reducing organic soil in the environment. A coworker in the operating room asks to see the patient's chart for the nurse's next case, stating that the patient is her neighbor. The nurse should: A. State this would be a violation of the patient's privacy B. Hand over the patient's chart because they are neighbors C. Consult with the doctor about letting the coworker see the chart D. Ask their director to make the decision
- A. State this would be a violation of the patient's privacy The federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) granted patients significant rights in respect to how their health information is used. Only health care personnel involved in direct patient care should have access to patient information. Surgery of the liver requires incising the external covering referred to as: A. Glisson's capsule B. Gerota's fascia C. Porta hepatis D. Hepatic fascia
- A. Glisson's capsule The covering of the liver is made up of dense connective tissue called Glisson's capsule. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for hair removal prior to surgery? A. A depilatory should be used in the operating room B. The patient should shave at home the night before surgery C. A wet shave should be done in the operating room D. The patient's hair should be clipped in the preoperative area
- D. The patient's hair should be clipped in the preoperative area When necessary, hair at the surgical site should be removed in the area outside of the procedure room and in a manner that minimizes injury to the skin, such as by clipping or depilatory methods. Joey is a 4-year-old scheduled to have surgery. During preoperative teaching, the perioperative nurse knows that Joey's age-specific needs can best be met by: A. Allowing his parent or caregiver to explain what will happen B. Providing him privacy whenever possible C. Allowing him to handle the oxygen mask and ride in the wagon that will later take him to the OR D. Giving him a thorough explanation of everything that will happen
- C. Allowing him to handle the oxygen mask and ride in the wagon that will later take him to the OR The preschooler needs to explore and interact with his environment. Allowing him to familiarize himself ahead of time with some objects he may encounter can help ease anxiety. "Flammable" antiseptic solutions differ from "combustible" ones in that: A. Flammable solutions have a flash point above 101.5F B. Flammable solutions will not ignite C. Combustible solutions have a flash point above 100.0F D. Combustible solutions will not ignite
- C. Combustible solutions have a flash point above 100.0F The threshold between flammable and combustible solutions is the flash point of 100.0F, with flammable ones being below this temperature and combustible ones being above. All saturated flammable solutions should be removed prior to draping the patient. Fumes from volatile or combustible solutions may ignite without a direct connection to the source of ignition. Which of the following is the most important action by the circulating nurse to reduce specimen error? A. Seeking clarification from the surgeon about the specimen site and side B. Calling the laboratory to confirm the proper storage solution for the specimen C. Asking the scrub person to verify the specimen D. Paging the surgical assistant postoperatively to identify the specimen
- A. Seeking clarification from the surgeon about the specimen site and side
B. Epinephrine C. 20% Lipid emulsion D. Propofol
- C. 20% Lipid emulsion A medication that should be administered for treatment of local anesthetic systemic toxicity is 20% lipid emulsion. The lipid emulsion is used to draw the local anesthetic out of the bloodstream. Hospital policy should include the requirement of PPE for all personnel that are likely to come in contact with blood or infectious materials based on: A. OSHA regulations B. TJC standards C. AORN Guidelines D. CDC recommendations
- A. OSHA regulations OSHA regulations require the use of PPE for any person that may encounter blood or infectious materials. Hospital policy must comply with the OSHA regulations. When double gloving, personnel should wear: A. Gloves one size larger for the first layer B. Gloves one size smaller for the first layer C. Gloves that are the same size for both layers D. Hypoallergenic gloves for the outer layer
- A. Gloves one size larger for the first layer Using an inner glove that is one size larger allows for an air pocket that will prevent constriction when the outer glove is applied. If hypoallergenic gloves are worn, these should be donned as the first pair, with generic sterile gloves worn as the outside pair. When preparing the skin for head and neck surgery, the circulating nurse understands that: A. Chlorhexidine gluconate should not be used for facial preps because corneal damage can occur if the cleanser is accidentally introduced into the eye(s) B. Cotton applicators should not be used for cleaning the external ear canal because they can puncture the inner ear C. Facial skin surfaces should be cleansed within 1 to 2 inches of the hair line D. Shaving the eyebrows should be avoided unless medically ordered
- A. Chlorhexidine gluconate should not be used for facial preps because corneal damage can occur if the cleanser is accidentally introduced into the eye(s)
Facial preps can risk injury to the eyes and ears in particular. Chlorhexidine gluconate can cause corneal and inner ear damage if the agent enters these areas. Cotton applicators can be used (with caution). Eyebrows should not be shaved as they are likely to grow back incompletely and/or unevenly. The hair should not be included in the prep unless the area is part of the sterile field. Medication errors related to ______ may be prevented by the medication reconciliation process. A. Procuring and prescribing B. Transcribing and procuring C. Prescribing and monitoring D. Transcribing and prescribing
- D. Transcribing and prescribing The medication reconciliation process has been implemented to help prevent transcribing and prescribing errors. Deviation from a standardized procedure that is hospital policy suggests the need for: A. A root cause analysis B. A verbal warning C. An evaluation of the procedure or staff D. Better communication
- C. An evaluation of the procedure or staff Standardization of procedures helps help develop skill and efficiency. Policies and procedures based on standards and guidelines help to incorporate evidence-based practice into patient care. Deviation from those policies should lead to an evaluation of the processes and staff involved to discover if the process needs to be improved. A patient reports to the ambulatory surgery center for local anesthesia without sedation and claims that the surgeon gave him permission to drive himself home. The most appropriate action for the perioperative nurse is to: A. Cancel the surgery and reschedule when the patient has a ride B. Contact the social worker to assist in finding transportation for the patient C. Check for an order stating that the patient may drive himself home D. Allow the patient to leave when his postoperative Aldrete score is 10.
- C. Check for an order stating that the patient may drive himself home It may be permissible for the patient to drive himself home if the surgery was performed under local anesthesia without sedation and if there is a physician's order. Which of the following are methods of sterilization?
Absorbable gelatin is treated to retard absorption, which allows the hemostatic agent to absorb 20 to 40 days after placement. The gelatin pad absorbs 40 times its weight and may be used wet or dry. A collection of blood in a body cavity or space caused by uncontrolled bleeding or oozing is called: A. Hematoma B. Pseudoaneurysm C. Varicosity D. Contusion
- A. Hematoma Hematomas form when there is uncontrolled bleeding or oozing into a body space or cavity. The hematoma may cause pain and require drainage. Policies and procedures for standardized transfer of care should reflect rules and recommendations from regulatory agencies and accreditation agencies as well as: A. A contingency plan should a patient's status change B. Verbal confirmation via read-back of cardiac monitoring and oxygen needs C. Use of a checklist to ensure all parameters for transfer of patient care have been met D. Approval of regulatory agencies for transfer of patient care processes, as documented in the institution's policies and procedures
- A. A contingency plan should a patient's status change Should a patient's status change, having a contingency plan in place has been shown to improve the effectiveness of the transfer of patient information in settings with high consequence for failure. A perioperative nurse is reviewing a patient's chart and notes that the patient will undergo a brain biopsy for symptoms of progressive dementia. Which of the following suspected pathogens would prompt the nurse to take additional actions during the perioperative period of this patient's care? A. Treponema pallidum bacteria B. Culex triaeniorhynchus virus C. Neuro-Cutaneous Leishmania protozoa D. Proteinaceous prion
- D. Proteinaceous prion Prions are proteinaceous infectious agents that are resistant to routine sterilization and disinfection practices. When a discrepancy is identified in the surgical count, the perioperative RN should:
A. Organize the sterile field B. Perform a methodical wound exploration C. Remain in the room until the item is found D. Call for assistance
- D. Call for assistance When a discrepancy is identified in the count, the perioperative RN should call for assistance. The scrub person should organize the sterile field. The surgeon and first assistant should perform a methodical wound exploration. The surgeon should remain in the room until the item is found or determined not to be in the patient. A health care industry representative should: A. Not participate in direct patient care B. Bring additional equipment that was not requested C. Check in with materials management D. Open requested implants
- A. Not participate in direct patient care Sales representatives should never participate in patient care and must not enter the sterile field. Only the requested equipment is brought in, and sales representatives must check in and out with the appropriate hospital staff. Which of the following demonstrates nursing professional development? A. Arriving to work on time every day B. Assisting with room turnover between cases C. Helping a coworker with his portfolio D. Achieving certification
- D. Achieving certification Certification is defined as documented verification of an individual's professional achievement of knowledge and skill in identified standards. The ANA supports certification as part of the individual nurse's professional development. The perioperative nurse identifies the patient's medical history in which phase of the nursing process? A. Assessment B. Diagnosis C. Planning D. Evaluation
- A. Assessment Assessment is the collection and analysis of relevant health data about the patient.
C. Surgical count status D. Estimated blood loss
- B. Complete and signed history and physical by attending physician Transfer-of-patient information for the preoperative phase includes verification of correct patient, evidence of site marking, and required clinical documentation (eg, complete and signed history and physical by attending physician). When correcting a patient care entry in the electronic health record, the perioperative nurse should: A. Highlight the correction in a different color B. Double strike through the incorrect entry C. Add a rationale for the correction D. Enter corrected information at the end of the document
- C. Add a rationale for the correction Any correction to the patient health record should include providing the rationale for the correction above the inaccurate entry (if room is available) or adding it to the margin of the document. A superficial surgical site infection (SSI) is identified as: A. An infection of an organ/space that is routinely evident on x-ray film and that occurs within 30 days of surgery B. An infected burn wound that extends into the fascial and muscle layers C. Purulent drainage originating from proximate organs or compartments D. An infection with purulent incisional drainage involving only skin or incisional subcutaneous tissue that occurs within 30 days of the surgical procedure
- D. An infection with purulent incisional drainage involving only skin or incisional subcutaneous tissue that occurs within 30 days of the surgical procedure SSIs are defined according to specific criteria into three categories, including superficial incisional, deep incisional, and organ/space. The correct answer is defined as a superficial incisional infection. Which of the following is a measure of the Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP)? A. Performing strict hand hygiene protocols B. Administering prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of surgical incision C. Damp-dusting prior to the first case of the day D. Performing a surgical count prior to the start of surgery
- B. Administering prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of surgical incision Administering the prophylactic antibiotic within 1 hour of the surgical incision is the only option that is a SCIP measure.
Which of the following statements regarding radiation safety is true? A. All personnel in the operating room should wear wrap-around lead aprons when ionizing radiation is used B. When a C-arm is in use, radiation emanates from the top part of the C-arm that is over the patient C. Time, distance, and shielding are important components of radiation safety D. When only one x-ray badge is worn, the proper placement is underneath the lead apron and along the neck line
- C. Time, distance, and shielding are important components of radiation safety For all x-ray procedures, time, distance, and shielding affect dose levels sustained. At the end of the case, loaned instruments should be: A. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, and returned to the lending facility B. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, sterilized, and returned to the lending facility C. Disassembled, decontaminated, sterilized, inspected, reassembled, and returned to the lending facility D. Placed in a biohazard plastic container, sealed, labeled, and returned to the lending facility
- A. Disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, inspected, and returned to the lending facility Loaned instruments should be disassembled, cleaned, decontaminated, and inspected before they are returned to the vendor or lending facility. The instruments do not have to be sterilized as they will have to undergo sterilization at the lending facility. Postoperative phone calls to the patient: A. Should be documented on the intraoperative record B. Should be made after the first week to accurately assess for complications C. Should not be part of a quality improvement initiative due to possible HIPAA violations D. Can be used to measure patient satisfaction
- D. Can be used to measure patient satisfaction Postoperative phone calls can be used to measure patient satisfaction, outcomes, and QI data. The relative humidity in a restricted area should be maintained within a range of: A. 15% to 60%
